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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1447872178#10_2589357820 | Title: Topic Test 3 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Topic Test 3
Topic Test 3
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Terms in this set (25)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
UNIT TEST (6) 92%
English III A - Dark Romanticism Topic Exam - 100%
Assignments
Content: He laughed a high lungless laugh. " De chillun don't keep her in no mo' so she visits when she chooses." Mr. Turner's words reveal his
lack of control over his wife. The speaker in "Harlem" contemplates
the fate of aspirations that are unrealized. In Their Eyes Were Watching God, Zora Neale Hurston uses dialect when Tea Cake speaks in order to
emphasize his cultural background. Mrs. Turner, like all other believers had built an altar to the unattainable—Caucasian characteristics for all. Her god would smite her, would hurl her from pinnacles and lose her in deserts, but she would not forsake his altars. Behind her crude words was a belief that somehow she and others through worship could attain her paradise—a heaven of straighthaired, thin-lipped, high-nose boned white seraphs. How does Zora Neale Hurston use Mrs. Turner to present a cultural criticism? She mocks Mrs. Turner's belief that everyone should look alike. | https://quizlet.com/118044603/topic-test-3-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1447872178#15_2589364157 | Title: Topic Test 3 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Topic Test 3
Topic Test 3
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Terms in this set (25)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
UNIT TEST (6) 92%
English III A - Dark Romanticism Topic Exam - 100%
Assignments
Content: Like men we'll face the murderous, cowardly pack,
Pressed to the wall, dying, but—fighting back! What sentence best conveys the speaker's message? There is honor in dying courageously. Which issue is Jackie Robinson addressing in his letter to President Eisenhower? President Eisenhower's sluggish response to the civil rights movement
Which statement most accurately describes Zora Neale Hurston's writing in "John Redding Goes to the Sea"? Hurston's word choice and use of regional expressions create a vivid image of African American life in the South. Matty Redding, John's mother, was setting the table for supper. She was a small wiry woman with large eyes that might have been beautiful when she was young, but too much weeping had left them watery and weak. Which best describes the intent of Hurston's use of voice as it relates to cultural experience? Hurston highlights the hardships that women in the community are experiencing through her description of Matty Redding. | https://quizlet.com/118044603/topic-test-3-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1447872178#16_2589365566 | Title: Topic Test 3 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Topic Test 3
Topic Test 3
PLAY
Terms in this set (25)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
UNIT TEST (6) 92%
English III A - Dark Romanticism Topic Exam - 100%
Assignments
Content: Hurston's word choice and use of regional expressions create a vivid image of African American life in the South. Matty Redding, John's mother, was setting the table for supper. She was a small wiry woman with large eyes that might have been beautiful when she was young, but too much weeping had left them watery and weak. Which best describes the intent of Hurston's use of voice as it relates to cultural experience? Hurston highlights the hardships that women in the community are experiencing through her description of Matty Redding. Which excerpt from Hurston's "John Redding Goes to Sea" is an example of nonstandard English? "Aw, woman, stop dat talk 'bout conjure. Tain't so nohow. Ah doan want Jawn tuh git dat foolishness in him." "Cose you allus tries tuh know mo' than me, but Ah ain't so ign'rant. | https://quizlet.com/118044603/topic-test-3-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1449698815#0_2591945558 | Title: aba cooper ch 1 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: aba cooper ch 1
aba cooper ch 1
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aba cooper ch 2
ch 3 aba cooper
ABA Chapter 5 vocab
ABA Chapter 4 vocab
Content: aba cooper ch 1 Flashcards | Quizlet
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applied behavior analysis
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branch of aba that is concerned with developing a technology for improving behavior
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behaviorism
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branch of aba that is the philosopy of the science of behavior
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Terms in this set (30)
applied behavior analysis
branch of aba that is concerned with developing a technology for improving behavior
behaviorism
branch of aba that is the philosopy of the science of behavior
empiricism
the practice of objective observation of the phenomena of interest; important to aba because behavior analysts must be able to completely define, systematically observe and accurately and relably measure occurrences and nonoccurences of the behavior of interest
experiment
a carefully conducted comparison of some measure of the phenomenon of interest (the dependent variable) under two or more different conditions in which only one factor at a time (the independent variable) differs from one condition to another
experimental analysis of behavior
branch of aba that is concerned with basic research
EAB
experimental analysis of behavior
functional relationship
a relationship that exists when a well controlled experiment reveals that a specific change in one event (the dependent variable) can relaibly be produced by specific manipulations of another event ( the independent variable) and that the change in the dependent variable was unlikely to be the result of other extraneious factors (confounding variable)
explanatory fiction
fictitious variable that is another nbame for the observed behavior that contributes nothing to an understanding of the behavior-circulr way of viewing the cause and effect of the situation
mentalism
an approach to the study of behavior that a mental or inner dimension exists that differs from a behavioral dimension. some phenomena from this dimension can directly cause or mediate behavior
methodological behaviorism
a philosophical position that views behavioral events that cannot be publicly observed as outside the realm of science
parsimony
requires that all simple ligical explanations for the phenomenon under investigation be ruled out, experimentally or coneptually before more complex or abstract explanations are considered
philosophic doubt
an atittude of science that says that scientists should continually question the truthfulness of what is regarded as fact
radical behaviorism
a thoroughgoing form of behaviorism that attempts to understand all human behavior including private events such as thoughts and feelings in terms of controlling variables in the history of the person (ontogeny) and the species (phylogeny)
replication
repeating an assignment to get the same results
science
a systematic approact to the understanding of natural phemena as evidenced by description, prediction, and control that relies on determinishm as its fundemantal assumption, empiricism as its prime directive, experimentation as its basic strategy, replication as requirement for believeability, parsimony as its conservative value, and philosphic doubt as its guiding conscience
correlation
relationship between variables
dependent variable
the variable that is investigated to see if it changes by manipulating the independent variable
independent variable
the variable that is systematically manipulated by the researcher in an experiment to see whether changes in the independent variable produce relaible changes in the dependent variable
determinism
the attitude of science that the universe is a lawful and orderly place in which all phenomena occur as a result of other events
john watson
early 1900's stimulus response psychology, said he could take 12 infants and make them whatever he wanted them to do by manipulating conditions of environment
respondent behavior
pavlov-reflexive behavior can be brought out by stimulus (dogs salivate at bell)
operant behavior
skinner-behaviors are influenced by stimulus changes that have followed the behavior in the past
applied (ABA characteristic)
signals abas commitment to affect imrpvemtne in behavior that enhance and improve peoples lives; behavior must be socailly significant
behavior (ABA characteristic)
behavior selected must be the one that needs improvement; must be measurable, must change subjects behavior not teachers or parents
analytic (ABA characteristic)
demonstrates effectiveness/functional relation between manipulated events and a relable change in some measurable dimension of the targented behavior; r
technological (ABA characteristic)
operative procedures are identified and described with sufficient detail and clarity so that they can be repeatable
conceptually systematic (ABA characteristic)
procedures for changing behavior and any interpretations of how or why those procedures were effective should be described in terms of the relevant principles from which they were derived
effective (ABA characteristic)
behavior must be improved to a practical degree
generality (ABA characteristic)
behavior lasts over time, happens in environments other than the one it was implemented in, or spreads to other behavrios
definition of aba
the science in which tactics derived from the principles of behavior are applied systematically to imrpove socially significant behavior and experimentation is used to identify the variables responsble for behavior change
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
aba cooper ch 2
54 terms
jmcullen
ch 3 aba cooper
21 terms
jmcullen
ABA Chapter 5 vocab
27 terms
TheaPepperl
ABA Chapter 4 vocab
31 terms
TheaPepperl
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1449698815#1_2591952320 | Title: aba cooper ch 1 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: aba cooper ch 1
aba cooper ch 1
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Terms in this set (30)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
aba cooper ch 2
ch 3 aba cooper
ABA Chapter 5 vocab
ABA Chapter 4 vocab
Content: some phenomena from this dimension can directly cause or mediate behavior
methodological behaviorism
a philosophical position that views behavioral events that cannot be publicly observed as outside the realm of science
parsimony
requires that all simple ligical explanations for the phenomenon under investigation be ruled out, experimentally or coneptually before more complex or abstract explanations are considered
philosophic doubt
an atittude of science that says that scientists should continually question the truthfulness of what is regarded as fact
radical behaviorism
a thoroughgoing form of behaviorism that attempts to understand all human behavior including private events such as thoughts and feelings in terms of controlling variables in the history of the person (ontogeny) and the species (phylogeny)
replication
repeating an assignment to get the same results
science
a systematic approact to the understanding of natural phemena as evidenced by description, prediction, and control that relies on determinishm as its fundemantal assumption, empiricism as its prime directive, experimentation as its basic strategy, replication as requirement for believeability, parsimony as its conservative value, and philosphic doubt as its guiding conscience
correlation
relationship between variables
dependent variable
the variable that is investigated to see if it changes by manipulating the independent variable
independent variable
the variable that is systematically manipulated by the researcher in an experiment to see whether changes in the independent variable produce relaible changes in the dependent variable
determinism
the attitude of science that the universe is a lawful and orderly place in which all phenomena occur as a result of other events
john watson
early 1900's stimulus response psychology, said he could take 12 infants and make them whatever he wanted them to do by manipulating conditions of environment
respondent behavior
pavlov-reflexive behavior can be brought out by stimulus (dogs salivate at bell)
operant behavior
skinner-behaviors are influenced by stimulus changes that have followed the behavior in the past
applied (ABA characteristic)
signals abas commitment to affect imrpvemtne in behavior that enhance and improve peoples lives; behavior must be socailly significant
behavior (ABA characteristic)
behavior selected must be the one that needs improvement; must be measurable, must change subjects behavior not teachers or parents
analytic (ABA characteristic)
demonstrates effectiveness/functional relation between manipulated events and a relable change in some measurable dimension of the targented behavior; r
technological (ABA characteristic)
operative procedures are identified and described with sufficient detail and clarity so that they can be repeatable
conceptually systematic (ABA characteristic)
procedures for changing behavior and any interpretations of how or why those procedures were effective should be described in terms of the relevant principles from which they were derived
effective (ABA characteristic)
behavior must be improved to a practical degree
generality (ABA characteristic)
behavior lasts over time, happens in environments other than the one it was implemented in, or spreads to other behavrios
definition of aba
the science in which tactics derived from the principles of behavior are applied systematically to imrpove socially significant behavior and experimentation is used to identify the variables responsble for behavior change
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
aba cooper ch 2
54 terms
jmcullen
ch 3 aba cooper
21 terms
jmcullen
ABA Chapter 5 vocab
27 terms
TheaPepperl
ABA Chapter 4 vocab
31 terms
TheaPepperl
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ABA - Cooper: Ch.1
45 terms
Ashley_Thorgeson
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36 terms
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COPY: Module 1 Quiz
25 terms
danettesmith
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aba flashcards
163 terms
jmcullen
aba cooper chapter 4
4 terms
jmcullen
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1450183274#4_2592747381 | Title: 1984 George Orwell Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: 1984 George Orwell
1984 George Orwell
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Terms in this set (106)
Content: He harbors revolutionary dreams. 2. What is the setting? Give country and the city. London, England (known as "Airstrip One" in the novel's alternate reality) which is the main city of Airstrip One, a province of the country of Oceania. 3. What are the three slogans of the Party? "War is Peace." "Freedom is Slavery." "Ignorance is Strength." | https://quizlet.com/11938150/1984-george-orwell-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1450974545#15_2593938060 | Title:
Headings:
Content: After eight years at war, the longest in American history, the United States ended its direct involvement in Vietnam. The peace agreement did not resolve the major issue, which was what the future of South Vietnam would be. Legacy of VietnamThe Vietnam War had a lasting impact on the United States. The war had cost over $170 billion in direct costs and had resulted in 58,000 deaths. Many soldiers who did return home faced psychological problems, and some families were left uncertain about POWs and MIAs. The Vietnam War increased Americans' cynicism about their government and made them question their leaders. 81b. Paris Peace Accords
How the Vietnam War impacted the United States: * The war had cost over $170 billion in direct costs and had resulted in 58,000 deaths. * Many soldiers who did return home faced psychological problems, and some families were left uncertain about POWs and MIAs. | https://quizlet.com/11982980/us-history-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1458568931#10_2605294296 | Title: CH 10 Anatomy Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: CH 10 Anatomy
CH 10 Anatomy
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Terms in this set (104)
Content: Transverse tubules (aka T-tubules)
-deep invaginations of the sarcolemma that extend into the sarcoplasm of skeletal muscle fibers as a network of narrow membranous tubules
-muscle impulses generated when a nerve impulse reaches the sarcolemma travel rapidly along the sarcolemma and then spread internally along the membranes of the T-tubule network
-the passage of this impulse helps stimulate and coordinate muscle contractions
Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
-another internal membrane complex in the skeletal muscle fiber
-similar to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of other cells
-stores calcium ions needed to initiate muscle contraction
-some parts of the SR run parallel to the muscle fiber, whereas other parts appear as blind sacs perpendicular to the fiber's length
Terminal cisternae
-expanded ends of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that are in contact with the transverse tubules
-site of calcium ion release to promote muscle contraction contact with the transverse tubules
Together, the two terminal cisternae and the centrally placed T-tubule formed a...
triad
Myofibrils
-hundreds to thousands of long, cylindrical structures in the sarcoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber
-during contraction, the myofibrils shorten as their component proteins change position
-because myofibrils are attached to the ends of the muscle fiber, the shortening of the myofibrils during a contraction causes the fiber to shorten. Myofilaments
-myofibrils consist of bundles of short myofilaments
-whereas a single myofibril runs the length of the muscle fiber, it takes many successive groupings of myofilaments to run the entire length of a myofibril
Thin filaments
-they are primarily composed of two strands of the protein actin twisted around each other to form a helical shape
-in each helical strand of actin, many small, spherical molecules are connected to form a long filament resembling a string of beads
-each spherical molecule is called G (globular) actin, and each filament composed of a strand of G-actin molecules is called F actin. Two regulatory proteins, tropomyosin and troponin are part of the thin filaments
Tropomyosin
-a short, thin, twisted filament that covers small sections of the actin strands
Troponin
Three functions
structurally, it (1) attaches to actin to anchor itself in place, and (2) attaches to tropomyosin to hold it in place over the surface of the actin
(3) functionally, troponin provides a binding site for calcium ions
Thick filaments
-are assembled from bundles of the protein myosin
-thick filaments are positioned at the center of the sarcomere
Myosin
-a thick filament that consists of two strands; each strand has a free, globular head and an attached, elongated tail. -are oriented on either end of the thick filament so that the long tails point toward the center of the filament and the heads point toward the edges of the filament and project outward toward the surrounding thin filaments
-during a contraction, myosin heads form crossbridges by binding thick filaments to actin in the thin filaments. Different types of striations (bands)
-A bands
-I bands
A bands
-dark bands that contain the entire thick filament
I bands
-light bands that contain thin filaments but no thick filaments
-in addition to thin filaments, there are also titin
Titin
-protein filaments
-play a role in muscle elasticity, control of thick filament assembly, and passive stiffness generated in the muscle
H zone (aka H band)
-a light, central region in the A band
-it is lighter shaded because only thick filaments are present—that is, there are no thin filaments overlapping the thick filaments in the H zone in a relaxed muscle fiber
-at maximal contraction, the thin filaments are pulled into this zone, and the H zone disappears
M line
-a thin transverse protein meshwork structure in the center of the H zone of a relaxed fiber
-serves as an attachment site for the thick filaments and keeps the thick filaments aligned during contraction and relaxation
Z disc (aka Z line)
-a thin transverse protein structure in the center of the I band that serves as an attachment site for thin filament ends. -although the Z disc is circular, when viewed "head-on," only the edge of the circle is visible, so it sometimes looks like a line. Connectins
-Z disc proteins that anchor and interconnect the thin filament ends at either end of a sarcomere
Sarcomere
-the functional contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber
-defined as the distance from one Z disc to the next adjacent Z disc. -each sarcomere shortens as the muscle fiber contracts
Tension
-tension is exerted on the portion of the skeleton where the muscle is attached
-the thick and thin protein filaments in sarcomeres interact to cause muscle contraction
-the mechanism for contraction is explained by the sliding filament theory. Sliding filament theory
-when a muscle contracts, thick and thin filaments slide past each other, and the sarcomere shortens
-the following changes occur within a sarcomere during a contraction: | https://quizlet.com/123611861/ch-10-anatomy-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1460315454#3_2606993470 | Title: School and Society Mid-Term Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: School and Society Mid-Term
School and Society Mid-Term
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Key concepts:
Terms in this set (45)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Phonemic Awareness
Put Reading First Quiz 3
ED Psych
Educational Psychology
Content: The postmodernist educator focuses on raising consciousness about social inequalities. True
Existentialism represents a break with idealism and realism, as well as with practices based on them, in its suggestion that definitions of concepts such as truth and value are ultimately personal and subjective. True
A pragmatist approach to education would embody which of the following sets of concepts? experience, experiment, environment
For the existentialist educator, values are
freely chosen. Progressive educators focus their attention primarily on the
learner. The philosophy that would support a subject-matter curriculum emphasizing the great and enduring ideas is
idealism. Thomas Jefferson's Bill for the More General Diffusion of Knowledge is an important benchmark in the history of public education because it
marked a transition in the broad purpose of schooling from religious intruction, as had existed in the colonial period, to public schools based on the needs of a democratic society. New York's educational system found it's roots in the Reformed Church of the _______ colonists. Dutch
Normal schools were important for women because they provided opportunities for higher education. True
Certifying teachers to teach in one-room schools in the 1800s was the responsibility of the local school board. | https://quizlet.com/124218682/school-and-society-mid-term-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1460565845#1_2607339977 | Title:
Headings:
Content: ADL apartment on a rehabilitation unit to simulate the person's home)
-In the OT Practice Framework, this part of the evaluation process is called an analysis of occupational performance
Occupational performance assessment tools
-Include interview,s, checklists, task performance, rating scales, and standardized instruments
-Interpretation of occupational performance assessments that are used to determine a person's ability to live independently must be made cautiously due to the self-report and/or simulated nature of certain items and the limited number of items tested in many evaluation tools
-Many assessments used to measure occupational performance provide a determination of the person's level of functional performance along a level of assistance continuum
Scales to measure functional performance
-Total Assistance: the need for 100% assistance by one or more persons to perform all physical activities and/or cognitive assistance to elicit a functional response
-Maximum Assistance: the need for 75% assistance by one person to physically perform any part of a functional activity and/or cognitive assistance to perform gross motor actions in response to direction
-Moderate Assistance: the need for 50% assistance by one person to physical activities or provide cognitive assistance to sustain/complete simple, repetitive activities safely
-Minimum Assistance: the need for 25% assistance by one person for physical activities and/or periodic, cognitive assistance to perform functional activities safely
-Standby Assistance: the need for supervision by one person for the patient to perform new activity procedures that were adapted by the therapist for safe and effective performance. A patient requires standby assistance when errors and the need for safety precautions are not always anticipated by the patient
-Independent Status: no physical or cognitive assistance is required to perform functional activities. Patients at this level are able to implement the selected course of action, consider potential errors, and anticipate safety hazards in familiar and new situations
General intervention guidelines for performance in areas of occupation
-Intervention should follow a "top-down" progression of considering the person's areas of occupation first rather than a "bottom-up" approach which focuses initially and/or solely on performance skills and client factors
-The impact of performance skill deficits and client factors on occupational performance is considered after the establishment of individual's desired occupational outcome
-Specific interventions to remediate, alleviate, and/or compensate for the effects of performance skill deficits and client factors on occupational performance are often required
-The focus of remediation interventions for performance skill deficits and client factors must be related to the individual's ability to perform meaningful occupations that are needed and desired by the individual
-Intervention for deficits that cannot be remediated should include recommendations for adaptive strategies and/or adaptive equipment that compensate for the deficits and ease performance in areas of occupation
-Strategies that can be generalized to different situations are particularly helpful (eg. principles of energy conservation)
-Multiple factors should be considered when recommending adaptive strategies (these factors are also relevant to consider when selecting adaptive equipment)
-Training in adaptive strategies and/or equipment used to enhance performance must consider the person's privacy and dignity (this is especially critical in interventions for the performance of PADL)
Factors to consider when recommending adaptive strategies
-What is important to the individual about the task? | https://quizlet.com/12430066/evaluation-and-intervention-for-performance-areas-in-occupation-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1460565845#2_2607344019 | Title:
Headings:
Content: the need for supervision by one person for the patient to perform new activity procedures that were adapted by the therapist for safe and effective performance. A patient requires standby assistance when errors and the need for safety precautions are not always anticipated by the patient
-Independent Status: no physical or cognitive assistance is required to perform functional activities. Patients at this level are able to implement the selected course of action, consider potential errors, and anticipate safety hazards in familiar and new situations
General intervention guidelines for performance in areas of occupation
-Intervention should follow a "top-down" progression of considering the person's areas of occupation first rather than a "bottom-up" approach which focuses initially and/or solely on performance skills and client factors
-The impact of performance skill deficits and client factors on occupational performance is considered after the establishment of individual's desired occupational outcome
-Specific interventions to remediate, alleviate, and/or compensate for the effects of performance skill deficits and client factors on occupational performance are often required
-The focus of remediation interventions for performance skill deficits and client factors must be related to the individual's ability to perform meaningful occupations that are needed and desired by the individual
-Intervention for deficits that cannot be remediated should include recommendations for adaptive strategies and/or adaptive equipment that compensate for the deficits and ease performance in areas of occupation
-Strategies that can be generalized to different situations are particularly helpful (eg. principles of energy conservation)
-Multiple factors should be considered when recommending adaptive strategies (these factors are also relevant to consider when selecting adaptive equipment)
-Training in adaptive strategies and/or equipment used to enhance performance must consider the person's privacy and dignity (this is especially critical in interventions for the performance of PADL)
Factors to consider when recommending adaptive strategies
-What is important to the individual about the task? -Is the strategy viewed as compatible with the particular social context? -Does the strategy enhance the individual's sense of personal control? -Does the strategy minimize the effort? -Does the strategy interfere with social opportunities or diminish the presentation of self? -Is the recommended strategy temporally realistic given the context? | https://quizlet.com/12430066/evaluation-and-intervention-for-performance-areas-in-occupation-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1460565845#3_2607346855 | Title:
Headings:
Content: -Is the strategy viewed as compatible with the particular social context? -Does the strategy enhance the individual's sense of personal control? -Does the strategy minimize the effort? -Does the strategy interfere with social opportunities or diminish the presentation of self? -Is the recommended strategy temporally realistic given the context? -Does the strategy provide for safety? Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (AMPS)
-Assessment for evaluation of activities of daily living
-Focus: assessment of the effectiveness, efficiency, or safety of a person's ADL task performance including personal activities of daily living (PADL) and instrumental or domestic activities of daily living (IADL)
-Method: 1) interview of the individual to determine 3-5 task that are relevant to the client and that will be sufficiently challenging 2) selection by the client of 2-3 tasks from those offered by the therapist 3) observation of a person's quality of performance of selected ADL tasks according to standardized task guidelines and client-chosen task options in a person's usual environment or in a closely simulated environment 4) flexibility of task options allows for cultural diversity and individual differences in methods of performing tasks 5) administration of the AMPS requires the therapist to complete a special AMPS training course
-Materials: the AMPS manual, which contains 63 standardized task choices, specific task guidelines, and AMPS score sheet; | https://quizlet.com/12430066/evaluation-and-intervention-for-performance-areas-in-occupation-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1460565845#4_2607348584 | Title:
Headings:
Content: -Does the strategy provide for safety? Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (AMPS)
-Assessment for evaluation of activities of daily living
-Focus: assessment of the effectiveness, efficiency, or safety of a person's ADL task performance including personal activities of daily living (PADL) and instrumental or domestic activities of daily living (IADL)
-Method: 1) interview of the individual to determine 3-5 task that are relevant to the client and that will be sufficiently challenging 2) selection by the client of 2-3 tasks from those offered by the therapist 3) observation of a person's quality of performance of selected ADL tasks according to standardized task guidelines and client-chosen task options in a person's usual environment or in a closely simulated environment 4) flexibility of task options allows for cultural diversity and individual differences in methods of performing tasks 5) administration of the AMPS requires the therapist to complete a special AMPS training course
-Materials: the AMPS manual, which contains 63 standardized task choices, specific task guidelines, and AMPS score sheet; the AMP computer scoring program and a pencil; materials and tools for each task as selected to be performed by the individual are described in the manual to include everyday items an individual would normally use
-Scoring and interpretation: the rater scores the quality of the individual's 16 motor skills and 20 process abilities on a 4 point ordinal scale of 1 = deficit, 2 = ineffective, 3 = questionable, 4 = competent; raw scores are entered into the therapist's AMPS computer scoring program which converts the raw scores into ability measures along the AMPS motor and process skill scales; individual's ability measures are adjusted by the AMPS computer program to account for certain test conditions (rater severity based upon calibration of rater during AMPS training; | https://quizlet.com/12430066/evaluation-and-intervention-for-performance-areas-in-occupation-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1460750894#3_2607544674 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Children who are physically or mentally or emotionally disabled often suffer from low self-esteem. Children who are self-conscious about their physical appearance and are involved with conflict at home can lower their self-esteem, as well as abuse, poverty and financial problems. Why is it difficult to define self-esteem? It is difficult to define self-esteem because it means differently every person. Self-esteem is defined as how a person feels about or sees themselves as. It can mean having a sense of self-worth that is dependent or accomplished. What are some ways that parents can help their children develop good social self-esteem? Parents can help their children develop good social self-esteem by reminding them to be optimistic and also asking them about their day as well as giving advice. They can also congratulate them on every accomplishment and encourage them to do better on every failure. What are some ways that parents can help their children develop good academic self-esteem? | https://quizlet.com/124366095/parenting-skills-module-2-review-and-critical-thinking-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1460750894#4_2607545925 | Title:
Headings:
Content: It can mean having a sense of self-worth that is dependent or accomplished. What are some ways that parents can help their children develop good social self-esteem? Parents can help their children develop good social self-esteem by reminding them to be optimistic and also asking them about their day as well as giving advice. They can also congratulate them on every accomplishment and encourage them to do better on every failure. What are some ways that parents can help their children develop good academic self-esteem? Parents can help their children develop academic self-esteem by making sure their grades are good, keeping them from trouble in school and reward them when they get good grades on an exam or project. How does positive self-esteem affect children as they develop through their teen years? What are characteristics of people with high self-esteem? Low self-esteem? Positive self-esteem in teen years is important as it is the time they start going through the peer pressure and trying to be a perfect teenager. | https://quizlet.com/124366095/parenting-skills-module-2-review-and-critical-thinking-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1460750894#5_2607547206 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Parents can help their children develop academic self-esteem by making sure their grades are good, keeping them from trouble in school and reward them when they get good grades on an exam or project. How does positive self-esteem affect children as they develop through their teen years? What are characteristics of people with high self-esteem? Low self-esteem? Positive self-esteem in teen years is important as it is the time they start going through the peer pressure and trying to be a perfect teenager. People with high self-esteem tend to have success in their life, be in healthy relationships, and goal oriented. People with low self-esteem tend to have little or no success in their life, be in unhealthy relationships, and not goal oriented. YOU MIGHT ALSO LIKE...
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1461460677#2_2608686285 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Small intestine: Made up of three segments — the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum — the small intestine is a 22-foot long muscular tube that breaks down food using enzymes released by the pancreas and bile from the liver. Absorbs nutrients, due to large surface area. Pancreas: The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum, the first segment of the small intestine. These enzymes break down protein, fats, and carbohydrates. The pancreas also makes insulin, secreting it directly into the bloodstream. Insulin is the chief hormone for metabolizing sugar. Liver: The liver has multiple functions, but its main function within the digestive system is to process the nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. | https://quizlet.com/124852083/biomed-unit-3-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1461629158#0_2608898816 | Title: Unit Test Review Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Unit Test Review
Unit Test Review
Terms in this set (15)
Content: Unit Test Review Flashcards | Quizlet
Unit Test Review
Created by
Helpful0123
Terms in this set (15)
Equilibrium occurs when supply and demand coordinate to
set prices and production. A monopoly is a market that has
a single supplier of a good or service. Why is pure competition considered an unsustainable system? Producers cannot make a profit if they keep dropping their prices. A possible result of disequilibrium is
excess demand. Excess supply is created when price or ____ move away from the equilibrium point. quantity
The graph shows a point of equilibrium. If supply for a product is low but demand is high, what most likely needs to happen to achieve equilibrium? The supply needs to be raised. The chart shows the marginal cost and marginal revenue of producing apple pies. | https://quizlet.com/124909352/unit-test-review-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1461933421#5_2609373055 | Title: Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary
Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary
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Study Guide for Science Quiz
Introduction to Atoms review packet
Parts of Speech
Unit 4 - The Old South, Antebellum Reformers, and…
Content: a war between the U.S. and Mexico
Mexican Cession
historical name for the region of the present day southwestern United States that was ceded to the U.S. by Mexico in 1848 under the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo following the Mexican-American War. this massive land grab was significant because the question of extending slavery into newly acquired territories had become the leading national political issue; the lad the U.S. gained after winning the mexican american war. California Gold Rush
1848 gold was discovered by James W. Marshall at Sutter's Mill, in Coloma, California. News of the discovery soon spread, resulting in some 300,000 men, women, and children coming to California from the rest of the United States and abroad. These early gold-seekers, called "forty-niners," traveled to California by sailing boat and in covered wagons across the continent, often facing substantial hardships on the trip. San Francisco grew from a small settlement to a boomtown, and roads, churches, schools and other towns were built throughout California. A system of laws and a government were created, leading to the admission of California as a state in 1850; When gold was discovered in California, everyone rushed there to find some. Which is how California is so diverse today. | https://quizlet.com/12505817/westward-expansionmanifest-destiny-review-vocabulary-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1461933421#10_2609381403 | Title: Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary
Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary
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Study Guide for Science Quiz
Introduction to Atoms review packet
Parts of Speech
Unit 4 - The Old South, Antebellum Reformers, and…
Content: How did gaining territories during the 19th century help the U.S. achieve the idea of "Manifest Destiny?" By gaining new territories the people can expand in every war, North, South, East, and West. Explain the Louisiana Purchase. How did we obtain Louisiana Territory? Why was it so important? What benefits did this give the U.S.? We obtained it by a treaty/purchase, when Napoleon Bonaporte couldn't hold on to it anymore. It doubled he size of the U.S., the people could expand. How did war with Mexico help bring the U.S. closer to achieving Manifest Destiny? The Mexican Cession Territory was a huge piece of land, which gave the U.S. much more land, so people could expand further. | https://quizlet.com/12505817/westward-expansionmanifest-destiny-review-vocabulary-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1461933421#11_2609382753 | Title: Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary
Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary
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Terms in this set (28)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Study Guide for Science Quiz
Introduction to Atoms review packet
Parts of Speech
Unit 4 - The Old South, Antebellum Reformers, and…
Content: What benefits did this give the U.S.? We obtained it by a treaty/purchase, when Napoleon Bonaporte couldn't hold on to it anymore. It doubled he size of the U.S., the people could expand. How did war with Mexico help bring the U.S. closer to achieving Manifest Destiny? The Mexican Cession Territory was a huge piece of land, which gave the U.S. much more land, so people could expand further. During the 1840s, Americans used the idea of Manifest Destiny to justify the...
1) expansion of women's rights
2) acquiring of new territories
3) beginning of free public education
4) repeal of the Missouri Compromise
2) acquiring of new territories
Many Americans justified westward expansion during the 1840s based on
1) a belief in Manifest Destiny
2) a need to preserve the natural environment
3) the authority of the Monroe Doctrine
4) the constitutional principles in the Bill of Rights
1) a belief in Manifest Destiny
The Louisiana Purchase was important to the growth of the U.S. because it...
1) doubled the size of the country
2) gave the nation control of the Great Lakes
3) completed America's westward expansion
4) brought California into the Union
1) doubled the size of the country
During the 1840s, the idea of Manifest Destiny was used to...
1) demand equal rights for African Americans
2) support westward expansion to the Pacific
3) criticize government treatment of Native American Indians
4) extend slavery into New England
2) support westward expansion to the Pacific
Which of the following was a cause of the U.S. war with Mexico? 1) Mexico refused to sell Oregon to the U.S.
2) The U.S. and Mexico disagreed over the location of each others' borders
3) Mexico annexed Texas illegally
4) President Polk disagreed with Manifest Destiny
2) The U.S. and Mexico disagreed over the location of each others' borders
Which of the following was the result of the discovery of gold in California? 1) gold was discovered in the Black Hills of the Dakotas
2) westward expansion and foreign immigration increased
3) California was annexed as a slave state
4) The U.S. went to war with Mexico
2) westward expansion and foreign immigration increased
What impact did Westward Expansion have on the Native Americans? 1) They gained land after victory in war
2) Many aspects of Native American culture were destroyed
3) Their system of polytheism benefited
4) The trail of tears was a positive affect of westward expansion
2) Many aspects of Native American culture were destroyed
All of the following EXCEPT_______ were groups who moved West during the 1800s. 1) Mountain men
2) Mormons
3) "49'ers"
4) Puritans
4) Puritans
All of the following are true about Westward Expansion EXCEPT
1) the U.S. gains land
2) the U.S. fights wars to expand its size and power
3) the Native Americans benefited
4) settlers often faced harsh and difficult conditions. | https://quizlet.com/12505817/westward-expansionmanifest-destiny-review-vocabulary-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1461933421#12_2609386314 | Title: Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary
Westward Expansion/Manifest Destiny review vocabulary
STUDY
PLAY
Key concepts:
Terms in this set (28)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Study Guide for Science Quiz
Introduction to Atoms review packet
Parts of Speech
Unit 4 - The Old South, Antebellum Reformers, and…
Content: During the 1840s, Americans used the idea of Manifest Destiny to justify the...
1) expansion of women's rights
2) acquiring of new territories
3) beginning of free public education
4) repeal of the Missouri Compromise
2) acquiring of new territories
Many Americans justified westward expansion during the 1840s based on
1) a belief in Manifest Destiny
2) a need to preserve the natural environment
3) the authority of the Monroe Doctrine
4) the constitutional principles in the Bill of Rights
1) a belief in Manifest Destiny
The Louisiana Purchase was important to the growth of the U.S. because it...
1) doubled the size of the country
2) gave the nation control of the Great Lakes
3) completed America's westward expansion
4) brought California into the Union
1) doubled the size of the country
During the 1840s, the idea of Manifest Destiny was used to...
1) demand equal rights for African Americans
2) support westward expansion to the Pacific
3) criticize government treatment of Native American Indians
4) extend slavery into New England
2) support westward expansion to the Pacific
Which of the following was a cause of the U.S. war with Mexico? 1) Mexico refused to sell Oregon to the U.S.
2) The U.S. and Mexico disagreed over the location of each others' borders
3) Mexico annexed Texas illegally
4) President Polk disagreed with Manifest Destiny
2) The U.S. and Mexico disagreed over the location of each others' borders
Which of the following was the result of the discovery of gold in California? 1) gold was discovered in the Black Hills of the Dakotas
2) westward expansion and foreign immigration increased
3) California was annexed as a slave state
4) The U.S. went to war with Mexico
2) westward expansion and foreign immigration increased
What impact did Westward Expansion have on the Native Americans? 1) They gained land after victory in war
2) Many aspects of Native American culture were destroyed
3) Their system of polytheism benefited
4) The trail of tears was a positive affect of westward expansion
2) Many aspects of Native American culture were destroyed
All of the following EXCEPT_______ were groups who moved West during the 1800s. 1) Mountain men
2) Mormons
3) "49'ers"
4) Puritans
4) Puritans
All of the following are true about Westward Expansion EXCEPT
1) the U.S. gains land
2) the U.S. fights wars to expand its size and power
3) the Native Americans benefited
4) settlers often faced harsh and difficult conditions. 3) the Native Americans benefited
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1461991860#1_2609485749 | Title:
Headings:
Content: In general, the West seemed more vulnerable to attacks and less able to defend itself. Romulus Augustus was the last
Western Roman Emperor
What Roman architecture invention allowed them to make larger enclosed buildings than the Greeks? the dome
Beginning in 510 B.C. the Roman Republic began a long period of expansion, but it was not considered an empire until the throne was occupied by
Augustus, nephew of Julius Caesar
In the 11th century, the gap between the Roman Catholic and the Greek Orthodox Church widened, largely over disagreements regarding the procession of the Holy Spirit and the
papal primacy
Which two rivers played a major role in the development of Ancient Rome
Tiber and Po
The Sixth Century AD completion of the Hagia Sophia and Church of the Apostles in the city of Constantinople best illustrate
the important role Christianity played in the Byzantine Empire
In this image, the Emperor Justinian is depicted as both king and priest, a representation of
the blending of church and state
Unlike in the Roman Catholic Church, in the Eastern church hierarchy there was no
pope
A major contribution of the Roman Republic to Western European culture was the
concept of government by laws
Which phrase describes Augustus Caesar? his rule marked the official end of the Roman Republic
Which Byzantine city was coined "New Rome" and became the capital city of the Byzantine Empire
Constantinople
What are two important reasons that Julius Caesar was assassinated on March 15, 44 BCE
he declared himself dictator for life and took most of the power away from the Senate
What instrument of the Roman Republic was generally considered to be the most powerful and prestigious
senate
Which of these is a true statement about the Byzantine Empire
it used Greek lanquage rather than Latin
Which of these correctly shows the greatest extent of the Roman Republic
A
Which of these best describes plebeians in the Roman Empire
they were the "middle class" of society
This emperor collected and codified all laws of the Byzantine age. Who was he? Justinian
.two people served in this position
. highest elected position in the Roman Republic
.elected by Centuriate Assembly
.highest civilian and military magistrates
These describe what position in the Roman Republic
Consul
Constantine's rise to power in the latter part of the Roman Empire marked a change in the way Christianity was viewed. Before an important battle, Constantine believed he saw the sign of Christ in a dream. He declared himself
converted
the spread of Christianity in the centuries following the death of Jesus was primarily due to its appeal to
the lower and urban classes
the Emperor Constantine is significant because
he was the first Roman Emperor to convert to Christianity
in the Sixth Century AD, following the fall of the Western Roman Empire, Constantinople was regarded as
a religious and trading center
which of these played the biggest role in helping communication within the Roman Republic
a network of good roads
this map shows the greatest extent of
the Roman Republic
among the main reasons for the fall of the western roman empire was
pressure on the Empire's frontiers by tribes of barbarians
In its early years, Christianity spread throughout the Roman Empire because its teaching appealed especially to
the poor and oppressed
The fall of the Roman Empire marks the beginning of the
Dark Ages
Justinian I was the powerful emperor of the Byzantine Empire in the 500s AD. How did his wife, the Empress Theodora, affect the Byzantine Empire
She worked to enact laws improving the status of women
Which of these is the best description of Byzantine art
it tended to focus on religious themes
Which number is nearest the location of Constantinople, the capital of the Byzantine Empire
4
What "new" religion gained support in the Roman Empire in the AD 300's
Christianity
the Western Roman Empire collapsed for many reasons, including
expensive wars with neighboring tribes
Two reasons that paved Roman roads were one of the most important technological advantage include
better troop transportation and easy access for trade and commrence
The Western Roman Empire was weakened by
the high cost of defending the empire
The Byzantine Empire was most influenced by
the Roman Empire
Byzantine Emperor Justinian's most significant political accomplishment was
codifying Roman law
Which statement regarding the revolt led by Spartacus against the Roman Republic is true
Spartacus led a slave army in an unsuccessful rebellion
Roman audiences enjoyed public entertainment
in the Colosseum or at Circus Maximus
A Byzantine-made version of the ancient Roman legal code became known as the
"Justinian Code"
Which of these is a major reason why Constantinople was chosen to be the capital of the Byzantine (Eastern Roman) Empire
it was at a crossroads of lucrative trade routes
Though Julius Caesar played a major role in transforming the Roman Republic into the Roman Empire and the Roman people had proclaimed him Rome's dictator for life, he was assassinated by a group of
senators
Which of these Roman developments resulted in the ability to build a larger and more stable structure
arch
.Augustus
.Cladius
.Nero
.Hadrian
These four historical figures are best known for their contributions to
The Roman Empire
a. Augustus becomes Emperor and Pax Romana begins
b. Caesar declared dictator, then assassinated
c. First Triumvirate established
d. Octavian defeats Antony & Cleopatra
Using the choices listed here, which answer shows the correct sequence of events that marked Rome's transition from Republic to Empire? | https://quizlet.com/125117167/world-history-unit-7-rome-test-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1461991860#2_2609491678 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Justinian
.two people served in this position
. highest elected position in the Roman Republic
.elected by Centuriate Assembly
.highest civilian and military magistrates
These describe what position in the Roman Republic
Consul
Constantine's rise to power in the latter part of the Roman Empire marked a change in the way Christianity was viewed. Before an important battle, Constantine believed he saw the sign of Christ in a dream. He declared himself
converted
the spread of Christianity in the centuries following the death of Jesus was primarily due to its appeal to
the lower and urban classes
the Emperor Constantine is significant because
he was the first Roman Emperor to convert to Christianity
in the Sixth Century AD, following the fall of the Western Roman Empire, Constantinople was regarded as
a religious and trading center
which of these played the biggest role in helping communication within the Roman Republic
a network of good roads
this map shows the greatest extent of
the Roman Republic
among the main reasons for the fall of the western roman empire was
pressure on the Empire's frontiers by tribes of barbarians
In its early years, Christianity spread throughout the Roman Empire because its teaching appealed especially to
the poor and oppressed
The fall of the Roman Empire marks the beginning of the
Dark Ages
Justinian I was the powerful emperor of the Byzantine Empire in the 500s AD. How did his wife, the Empress Theodora, affect the Byzantine Empire
She worked to enact laws improving the status of women
Which of these is the best description of Byzantine art
it tended to focus on religious themes
Which number is nearest the location of Constantinople, the capital of the Byzantine Empire
4
What "new" religion gained support in the Roman Empire in the AD 300's
Christianity
the Western Roman Empire collapsed for many reasons, including
expensive wars with neighboring tribes
Two reasons that paved Roman roads were one of the most important technological advantage include
better troop transportation and easy access for trade and commrence
The Western Roman Empire was weakened by
the high cost of defending the empire
The Byzantine Empire was most influenced by
the Roman Empire
Byzantine Emperor Justinian's most significant political accomplishment was
codifying Roman law
Which statement regarding the revolt led by Spartacus against the Roman Republic is true
Spartacus led a slave army in an unsuccessful rebellion
Roman audiences enjoyed public entertainment
in the Colosseum or at Circus Maximus
A Byzantine-made version of the ancient Roman legal code became known as the
"Justinian Code"
Which of these is a major reason why Constantinople was chosen to be the capital of the Byzantine (Eastern Roman) Empire
it was at a crossroads of lucrative trade routes
Though Julius Caesar played a major role in transforming the Roman Republic into the Roman Empire and the Roman people had proclaimed him Rome's dictator for life, he was assassinated by a group of
senators
Which of these Roman developments resulted in the ability to build a larger and more stable structure
arch
.Augustus
.Cladius
.Nero
.Hadrian
These four historical figures are best known for their contributions to
The Roman Empire
a. Augustus becomes Emperor and Pax Romana begins
b. Caesar declared dictator, then assassinated
c. First Triumvirate established
d. Octavian defeats Antony & Cleopatra
Using the choices listed here, which answer shows the correct sequence of events that marked Rome's transition from Republic to Empire? c,b,d,a
Which of these would be the best title for this map? The Barbarian Invasions of the Roman Empire
What was an important result from emperor Constantine's conversion to Christianity? Christianity immediately became a "permitted" religion
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1463045823#21_2611140265 | Title: Civics Test Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Civics Test
Civics Test
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Terms in this set (26)
Content: How does the Constitution limit presidential power? C) both A and B
Answer: The Constitution limits presidential power both by making the president share functions like law making with Congress, and by requiring the president get approval for appointments to the courts. Uncertainty over the limits to presidential power is caused primarily by the fact that the constitutional definition of those powers is broad and unspecific. While the Constitution lays out some of the president's duties, and indicates certain limits on his powers, much remains very vague. It is not clear, for example, just how much additional power a president can claim on the basis of Article II's vesting of "the executive power" in the president. Accordingly, presidents are often left to define for themselves the limits of their powers under the broad headings of "commander-in-chief" and so on. The strongest voice in shaping foreign policy belongs to _____. The strongest voice in shaping foreign policy belongs to _____. D) the president
Answer: | https://quizlet.com/125705084/civics-test-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1463216251#1_2611404486 | Title:
Headings:
Content: The New Deal
STUDY
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Created by
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Terms in this set (28)
New Deal
President FDR's relief, recovery, and reform programs designed to combat the Great Depression
hundred days
period at the start of FDR's presidency in 1933, when many New Deal programs were passed by Congress
public works program
government funded projects to build public features
Civilian Conservation Corps (CCC)
established by Congress in 1933, this program put more than 2.5 million young men to work restoring and maintaining forests, parks, and beaches
Agricultural Adjustment Administration (AAA)
established in 1933 to raise farm prices through government financial assistance
Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA)
federal project to provide inexpensive electric power, flood control and recreational opportunities to the Tennessee River valley
Second New Deal
period of legislative activity launched by FDR in 1935
Wagner Act
passed in 1935, that aided unions by legalizing collective bargaining and closed shops, and by establishing the National Labor Relations Board
closed shop
workplace only open to union members
Social Security system
established in 1935, the Social Security Act was passed to provide financial security in the form of regular payments to people who cannot support themselves
American Liberty League
organization founded in 1934 to oppose the New Deal
demagogue
a leader who manipulates people with half-truths, deceptive promises and scare tactics
nationalization
government takeover and ownership of banks, and the redistribution of their wealth
deficit spending
paying out more from the annual federal budget than the government receives in revenues
recession
period of slow business activity
national debt
total amount of money that the federal government borrows and has to pay back
revenue
income
coalition
alliance groups with similar goals
sit-down strike
labor protest in which laborers stop working but refuse to leave the workplace
Why did FDR begin the New Deal by closing the nation's banks? FDR began the New Deal by closing the banks to restore public confidence in the nation's banks. Many Americans had been afraid by the fact that they could lose their savings. But by FDR's actions, the banks were healthy and trust had been restored
How did the National Industrial Recovery Act aim to help businesses? The NIRA sought to bolster business failures and unemployment through extensive planning to balance the unstable economy. The planning took the form of codes. These codes included: regulated wages, controlled working competition, prices, production, and set minimum wage. They also gave organized labor unions collective bargaining rights, allowing workers to negotiate as a group with employers
What did the 1936 election reveal about voters' attitudes towards the New Deal? The 1936 election showed that Americans supported the New Deal; | https://quizlet.com/125791267/chapter-16-the-new-deal-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1463259717#2_2611485434 | Title: BIO CRAM NOTES 2 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: BIO CRAM NOTES 2
BIO CRAM NOTES 2
Terms in this set (18)
Content: sporangia ... dikaryon
mycelia ... dikaryon
hyphae ... mycelium
hyphae ... chytrid
mycelia ... hypha
hyphae ... mycelium
An important example of interaction between fungi and certain other organisms is mycorrhizae, in which the fungal partners _____. control soil nematodes
help plants take up nutrients and water
sicken herbivores that attempt to feed on plants
cause the decay of cellulose and lignin
provide carbohydrates to the plant partner
help plants take up nutrients and water
Seedless plants include _____. only lycophytes and monilophytes
bryophytes, lycophytes, ferns, whisk ferns, and horsetails
bryophytes and gymnosperms
mosses and angiosperms
only nonvascular plants
bryophytes, lycophytes, ferns, whisk ferns, and horsetails
Most bryophytes, such as mosses, differ from all other plants in that they _____. do not produce flowers
produce spores
lack true leaves and roots
have flagellated sperm
have cones but no seeds
lack true leaves and roots
What evolutionary development allowed plants to grow tall? sporophylls
leaves
the waxy cuticle
lignified vascular tissue
rhizoids
lignified vascular tissue
In contrast to bryophytes, in vascular plants the dominant stage of the life cycle is the _____. sporophyte
archegonium
gametophyte
antheridium
spore
sporophyte
When you look at a pine or maple tree, the plant you see is a _____. triploid endosperm
haploid sporophyte
diploid sporophyte
haploid gametophyte
diploid gametophyte
diploid sporophyte
The adaptation that made possible the colonization of dry land environments by seed plants is most likely the result of the evolution of _____. pollen
ovules
roots
cones
sporophylls
pollen
The major difference between angiosperms and gymnosperms comes from the _____. presence or absence of a protective covering over the ovule
dominance or lack of dominance of the sporophyte generation
presence or absence of vascular structures
presence or absence of alternation of generations
production of microspores versus megaspores
presence or absence of a protective covering over the ovule
Angiosperms are different from all other plants because only they have _____. a life cycle that involves alternation of generations
seeds
a vascular system
flowers
a sporophyte phase
flowers
From the human perspective, which of the following kinds of fungi would be considered the least useful or beneficial? | https://quizlet.com/125833336/bio-cram-notes-2-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1464605909#0_2613170774 | Title: Healthy Friendships AND Family Relationships Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Healthy Friendships AND Family Relationships
Healthy Friendships AND Family Relationships
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Young people join gangs because __________. Click card to see definition 👆
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B
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A true friend would never put you in danger or ask you to do something with which you are not comfortable. Click card to see definition 👆
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1467341312#0_2617587073 | Title: Best Managing Emotions Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Managing Emotions
Managing Emotions
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Managing Emotions
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Depression, eating disorders, withdrawal from others, and suicide may all be the result of __________. Click card to see definition 👆
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Losing control of one's emotions
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Stress Can Cause
Abraham Maslow
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Depression, eating disorders, withdrawal from others, and suicide may all be the result of __________. Losing control of one's emotions
To cope with stress, it is important to release your energy in any way possible. F
A person is more likely to get sick while experiencing poor emotional health. T
Keeping things in perspective and expressing your feelings are defense mechanisms. | https://quizlet.com/127851666/managing-emotions-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1467341312#1_2617588891 | Title: Best Managing Emotions Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Managing Emotions
Managing Emotions
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Key concepts: Mental And Emotional Health
Stress Can Cause
Abraham Maslow
Terms in this set (21)
Depression, eating disorders, withdrawal from others, and suicide may all be the result of __________. Losing control of one's emotions
To cope with stress, it is important to release your energy in any way possible. F
A person is more likely to get sick while experiencing poor emotional health. T
Keeping things in perspective and expressing your feelings are defense mechanisms. F
If you do not manage your emotions, they most likely will affect your ability to make good decisions. T
Emotional events that lead to stress include __________. Getting a new job or losing a job, divorce of loss of a loved one, and problems with drugs or alcohol
__________ is a feeling of anticipated distress, danger, or hurt. Fear
Stress can cause eating disorders and depression. T
Which statement is NOT true about emotions? | https://quizlet.com/127851666/managing-emotions-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1467341312#2_2617590401 | Title: Best Managing Emotions Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Managing Emotions
Managing Emotions
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Evaluating Mental and Emotional Health
Mental Health Disorders
Evaluating Mental and Emotional Health
Drugs as Medicine
Content: F
If you do not manage your emotions, they most likely will affect your ability to make good decisions. T
Emotional events that lead to stress include __________. Getting a new job or losing a job, divorce of loss of a loved one, and problems with drugs or alcohol
__________ is a feeling of anticipated distress, danger, or hurt. Fear
Stress can cause eating disorders and depression. T
Which statement is NOT true about emotions? Experiencing negative emotions is always unhealthy. Health effects of stress can result in all of the following EXCEPT: Lower blood pressure and chills
Which group is more susceptible to hormonal changes? Teenagers
List and describe three common defense mechanisms. It is common to go into denial, which is the unconscious lack of acknowledgment of something that is obvious to others. | https://quizlet.com/127851666/managing-emotions-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1467471328#1_2617815251 | Title:
Headings:
Content: -you like boys and girls
-when you love yourself
-change your gender
Sexism
The belief that ones sex is innately superior to the other and is therefore justified in having a dominant social position
Feminism
the belief that social equality should exist between the sexes; also the social movements aimed at achieving that goal
hegemonic masculinity
a set of socially constructed ideas about masculinity that focuses on the interests and desires of men
ex) white, tall, athletic, youthful, married, heterosexual, a father, college educated,
emphasized femininity
a set of socially constructed ideas that accommodate the interests of men that patriarchy involving the compliance of females
ex) focuses on physical appearance rather than intellect
Stereotype threat
a situation in which an individual is at risk of confirming a negative stereotype about his or her social group. hidden curriculum
a school's unofficial rules through which students learn behaviors and values
stalled revolution
ex) how woman always took care of things and now thats the norm like in households and stuff
sexual harassment
unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, or physical conduct of a sexual nature when such conduct is used as a condition of employment, instruction, evaluation, benefits, or other opportunities; or when such conduct interferes with an individual's performance or contributes to an intimidating, hostile, or offensive environment. Title IX
requires gender equity for men and woman in every educational program receiving federal funding
Equal Pay Act of 1963
made it illegal to pay men and woman different wages for the same work. Social construction of gender
Gender as a process
Gender as a structure
Gender as a stratification
Gender wage gap
The difference between the earnings of woman who work full-time year round as a group and those of men who work full-time year round as a group
Occupational segregation of gender
the concentration of men and woman in different occupations
Labor supply factors
factors that highlight reasons that woman or men may "prefer" particular occupations
Labor demand factors
Factors that highlight the needs and preferences of the employer
Glass ceiling
an artificial boundary that allows woman to see the next occupational or salary level even as structural obstacles keep them from reaching it. Glass escalator
the nearly invisible promotional boost that men gain in female-dominated occupations
Patriarchy
any set of social relationships in which men dominate woman
standpoint theory
a perspective that says the knowledge we create is conditioned by where we stand, or our subjective social position
Matrix of domination
a system of social positions in which any individual may concurrently occupy a status as a member of a dominated group and a status as a member of a dominating group
ex) gender, race, class, or sexual orientation
Woman in higher education
woman are more at risk to sexual harassment in the work force, at school, etc. -educated, literate woman are healthier woman
-more educated mothers are more likely to understand and practice good hygiene and health practices
"factory of gendered personalities"
The Family (because they reproduce and its similar personality traits)
Martin and Fabes (2001)
girls who stay with all girl groups tend to be encouraging and supportive
boys in the same gender groups tend to be more aggressive and competitive
C.J. Pascoe (2011)
found that teenage boys reinforced norms of masculinity and heterosexuality by disciplining behavior deemed inappropriate, feminine, or otherwise "unmanly" by using the slurs "fag" or "******"
Charlotte Perkins Gilman (1898)
one of the first early feminist who coined the term sexuoeconomic relation, describing unhappy heterosexual relationships in which the sexual relationship was also an economic one
radical feminism
the belief that woman's inequality underlies all other forms of inequality, including economic inequality
*true feminists focus on the main concept of patriarchy and woman's direct rights
Bureau of Labor Statistics
28% of woman aged 24 and older have earned a bachelor's degree, compared to 19% of men. Subjects
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1468493590#22_2619347376 | Title: Ch. 12 Mastering Microbio Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Ch. 12 Mastering Microbio
Ch. 12 Mastering Microbio
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Micro Test
Mastering Micro Ch. 12
Ch. 13 MASTERING MICROBIOLOGY
chptr 13
Content: archaea are not pathogenic. No; archaea are prokaryotic, so they cannot cause infection. Yes; all infectious prokaryotes are archaea. Yes; certain archaea can be pathogenic, so an infection could occur. No; archaea are not pathogenic
Which of the following methods could be used to differentiate between a member of domain Bacteria and a member of domain Archaea? You could look for the presence of peptidoglycan. | https://quizlet.com/128310429/ch-12-mastering-microbio-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1470312570#10_2622003146 | Title:
Headings:
Content: the president has the greatest claim of any U.S. official to national leadership by virtue of reaching office through a national election. According to political scientist Richard Neustadt, a sign of presidential weakness is the
veto
Economic problems usually affect the public's confidence in
American presidents
The number of electoral voters a states has in the Electoral College is determined by what factor? the number of members it has in the House and the Senate
The relationship American citizens have with their presidents begins
before a president takes the oath of office. Political scientist Stephen Skowronek believes strong presidents
have a clear plan to achieve their goals. have a clear vision of where they want to lead the nation. Before any caucuses or primaries even occur, it is crucial for potential presidential candidates to
raise a lot of campaign money
Campaigns primarily use which of the following media to persuade undecided voters? television
The key to winning modern presidential elections is winning the states that
can provide the most electoral votes
Disagreement with Congress on Reconstruction policies led to the impeachment of _______________ and almost led to his removal of office. Andrew Johnson
After Vietnam, Congress sought to limit the ability of the presidents to commit the United States to war by passing the
War Powers Act. Which of the following describes the executive authority that the Constitution assigns the vice president? no executive authority
According to the stewardship theory of the U.S. presidency,
presidents are free to take any action they wish as long as it is not against the law. | https://quizlet.com/129103206/ch-12-the-presidency-leading-the-nation-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1470312570#11_2622005048 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Before any caucuses or primaries even occur, it is crucial for potential presidential candidates to
raise a lot of campaign money
Campaigns primarily use which of the following media to persuade undecided voters? television
The key to winning modern presidential elections is winning the states that
can provide the most electoral votes
Disagreement with Congress on Reconstruction policies led to the impeachment of _______________ and almost led to his removal of office. Andrew Johnson
After Vietnam, Congress sought to limit the ability of the presidents to commit the United States to war by passing the
War Powers Act. Which of the following describes the executive authority that the Constitution assigns the vice president? no executive authority
According to the stewardship theory of the U.S. presidency,
presidents are free to take any action they wish as long as it is not against the law. The percentage of survey respondents who say that they support the work the president is doing is known as the president's ______________ rating. approval
Which chamber of Congress has the power to impeach the president? House
Most U.S. presidents have
had prior government service. been male
been white
been protestant
The best opportunity presidents have to get Congress to pass policy initiatives is when
their party controls both houses of Congress
Presidents might not succeed in achieving certain goals if Congress does not provide the necessary funding them. This illustrates the governemnt's
separation of powers
A type of election that gives voters the power to select delegates who choose candidates is calleed
an indirect primary
Studies have shown that many voters decide to vote for a particular presidential candidate during
the national party conventions
A binding international agreement reached between the United States and other foreign nations that is subject to Senate approval is known as
a treaty
The beginning of a new presidential administration, which is often characterized by higher levels of public approval, is known as a
honeymoon period
Which president changed the nature of presidency at the beginning of the twentieth century, adopting what he called the stewardship theory of the presidency? | https://quizlet.com/129103206/ch-12-the-presidency-leading-the-nation-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1472690355#0_2624934063 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Ender's game Flashcards | Quizlet
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Andrew/Ender Wiggin
The younger brother of Peter and Valentine, at age six Ender is chosen by Colonel Graff and the International Fleet to help save mankind from the buggers. Ender is afraid of his brother and loves his sister. Wherever he goes, Ender makes things happen, and by age nine he is given his own army to command. Ender is angry at the various people who manipulate him throughout the novel. Peter Wiggin
Ender's older brother Peter is a cruel and evil child, gifted in manipulation. He has the same ruthlessness that his siblings contain but without any of their compassion. Valentine is able to protect Ender as best she can from Peter until Ender goes away. Peter then decides to take an active role in world affairs and convinces Valentine to help him. | https://quizlet.com/130020082/enders-game-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1472690355#1_2624935371 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Ender is angry at the various people who manipulate him throughout the novel. Peter Wiggin
Ender's older brother Peter is a cruel and evil child, gifted in manipulation. He has the same ruthlessness that his siblings contain but without any of their compassion. Valentine is able to protect Ender as best she can from Peter until Ender goes away. Peter then decides to take an active role in world affairs and convinces Valentine to help him. Under the pseudonym Locke he begins to gather power, working through the communication nets. After Ender's victory Peter obtains total control of earth and becomes Hegemon, the ruler of the world. His ambition is sated and he actually makes for a good ruler, although he is as amoral is he ever was. Valentine Wiggin
Ender's older sister is the only person in the world who truly loves him. She protects him from Peter, their sadistic older brother. | https://quizlet.com/130020082/enders-game-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1472690355#2_2624936470 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Under the pseudonym Locke he begins to gather power, working through the communication nets. After Ender's victory Peter obtains total control of earth and becomes Hegemon, the ruler of the world. His ambition is sated and he actually makes for a good ruler, although he is as amoral is he ever was. Valentine Wiggin
Ender's older sister is the only person in the world who truly loves him. She protects him from Peter, their sadistic older brother. Along with Peter, Valentine takes an active interest in the world's political situation, and writing under the pseudonym Demosthenes begins to exert influence over the growing situation. Valentine also writes a letter to Ender at one point that helps him get control of himself. At the end of the book, Valentine convinces Ender to go with her to colonize the bugger worlds, and she works on a history of the world on the way there. Later she travels with Ender as he searches for a new world for the buggers. Stilson
The bully who attempts to gang up in Ender back in the days before battle school, he is unintentionally killed by Ender in a fight. | https://quizlet.com/130020082/enders-game-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1475438652#17_2628551415 | Title: PSYC 160: Ch. 10 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: PSYC 160: Ch. 10
PSYC 160: Ch. 10
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Content: All of the following are reasons why the adolescent suicide rate seems worse than it actually is EXCEPT? The rate is higher than it has been in past decades. Bickering between parents and teenagers is most likely to: concern personal habits and dress. Identify the accurate statement about adolescent crime. Virtually every adolescent boy has broken a law by the age of 21. Without any thoughtful consideration, Sean took on an identity that is the opposite of what his parents want for him. Sean has adopted a (n): negative identity. Arrest statistics do not accurately reflect the prevalence of adolescent delinquency because: | https://quizlet.com/131264004/psyc-160-ch-10-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1477134202#5_2631296791 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Take me. After Juliet asks some pertinent questions (lines 58-84), she realizes that Romeo has overheard her intimate thoughts about him. How does her attitude change in lines 85-105? What is she worried about? Her attitude towards what she said before changes because she now knows that Romeo heard her expressing her love to him and she is now worried that things are going at too fast of a pace for her. Why does Juliet object to Romeo's swearing on the moon
Because the moon is a very inconstant thing to swear on, due to it's changing every month. Juliet speaks of her fears
Juliet fears that as soon as Romeo and her get married, something bad would happen to them
What does Romeo tell Friar Laurence, and what does he want from the Friar
Romeo tells Friar Laurence that he have moved on from Rosaline, and has now moved on to loving Juliet and wish to be wed on that day in his cell
What is Friar Laurence's reaction to hearing of Romeo's new love
Friar Laurence's rection was a surprised reaction because Romeo moved on from being in love with Rosaline to falling deeply in love with juliet and making plans to be wed so soon. " Young men's love then lies not truly in their hearts, but in their eyes." What message does Romeo urge the nurse to give to Juliet
Romeo requests that the nurse tell Juliet that they are to be wed at Friar Laurence's cell later tonight. Juliet is very impatient to hear news from Romeo (lines 1-17). | https://quizlet.com/132554467/act-2-study-guide-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1477134202#6_2631298448 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Why does Juliet object to Romeo's swearing on the moon
Because the moon is a very inconstant thing to swear on, due to it's changing every month. Juliet speaks of her fears
Juliet fears that as soon as Romeo and her get married, something bad would happen to them
What does Romeo tell Friar Laurence, and what does he want from the Friar
Romeo tells Friar Laurence that he have moved on from Rosaline, and has now moved on to loving Juliet and wish to be wed on that day in his cell
What is Friar Laurence's reaction to hearing of Romeo's new love
Friar Laurence's rection was a surprised reaction because Romeo moved on from being in love with Rosaline to falling deeply in love with juliet and making plans to be wed so soon. " Young men's love then lies not truly in their hearts, but in their eyes." What message does Romeo urge the nurse to give to Juliet
Romeo requests that the nurse tell Juliet that they are to be wed at Friar Laurence's cell later tonight. Juliet is very impatient to hear news from Romeo (lines 1-17). What images does she use in her soliloquy to express this
"And therefore hath the wind-swift Cupid wings"
"Now is the sun upon the high high-most hill"
"Of this days journey, and from the nine to twelve is three hours long, yet she has not come." The nurse knows Juliet is impatient, but she keeps putting her off. Why does the nurse do this? The Nurse does not tell Juliet what Romeo had told her to tell her because she has had a very long day and was very tired because of the harassment that Mercutio was giving her. Why does the Nurse agree to help Juliet marry Romeo
The nurse agrees to assist in the marriage of Romeo and Juliet because the nurse is like a mother to Juliet and she wants what is best for her. | https://quizlet.com/132554467/act-2-study-guide-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1478198160#2_2632791899 | Title:
Headings:
Content: The Pax Romana Ended
Roman emperors minted more coins
Rome faced attacks on its frontier
Effect: Political upheaval and violence increased
Inflation occurred
Rome hired mercenaries
Emperor Diocletian (245-316 CE)
Governed as an absolute ruler. He divided the empire into the eastern and the western regions. standardized coins and he fixed prices
Brought order to Rome in the short term
He divided the empire into the east and the west
EAST HAD MORE WEALTH because of the river gap between the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
Division of the empires
Eastern Empire: Western Empire: EAST HAD MORE WEALTH because of the river gap between the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
Constantine the great's Unification of the Empire
Yellow background, he's holding a castle type thing
gained control of both halves and emerged as Rome's sole ruler
-He moved the capital to Byzantium (a former little Greek fishing village.) and renamed it Constatantinople
- He converted to Christianity and he ended the persecution of Christians
-After his death, the western empire fell into decline again
Factors Leading to Collapse
Political and Social Factors
service in government seen as a burden
less public interest in the affairs of government
Decreased support for military service (hiring mercenaries)
Factors Leading to Collapse
Economic Factors
-Disrupted trade
-High taxes
-Increasing gap between rich and poor
The enemies of Rome
The two keys enemies of Rome were the
-Huns from central Asia (North East, purple)
-Germanic tribes from Germany and eastern Europe (North, green)
The Huns
Attila the Hun attacked the empire with 100,000 troops. They attacked more than 70 cities. failed to capture Rome or Constantinople. Collapse of Western Rome
Germanic people attacked and looted the city of Rome in 455 CE
(Rome had a population of one million people.) | https://quizlet.com/133251347/the-fall-of-the-roman-empire-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1478198160#3_2632794010 | Title:
Headings:
Content: EAST HAD MORE WEALTH because of the river gap between the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
Constantine the great's Unification of the Empire
Yellow background, he's holding a castle type thing
gained control of both halves and emerged as Rome's sole ruler
-He moved the capital to Byzantium (a former little Greek fishing village.) and renamed it Constatantinople
- He converted to Christianity and he ended the persecution of Christians
-After his death, the western empire fell into decline again
Factors Leading to Collapse
Political and Social Factors
service in government seen as a burden
less public interest in the affairs of government
Decreased support for military service (hiring mercenaries)
Factors Leading to Collapse
Economic Factors
-Disrupted trade
-High taxes
-Increasing gap between rich and poor
The enemies of Rome
The two keys enemies of Rome were the
-Huns from central Asia (North East, purple)
-Germanic tribes from Germany and eastern Europe (North, green)
The Huns
Attila the Hun attacked the empire with 100,000 troops. They attacked more than 70 cities. failed to capture Rome or Constantinople. Collapse of Western Rome
Germanic people attacked and looted the city of Rome in 455 CE
(Rome had a population of one million people.) In 476 CE, a German king forced the last emperor of western Rome from power. (When a German king was all said and done, they only had only 20,000 people left in Rome.) The Eastern Rome Empire became the Byzantine Empire, which lasted until 1453
(He forced them out and the Eastern Roman Empire became the Byzantine Empire which lasted until 1453. Effects of the Collapse
The era following the collapse of Rome (476-1400) is often called "The Dark Ages"
MIDDLE AGES
-Europe was divided into dozens of small kingdoms
-Unlike Rome, these kingdoms had no written rule of law
-Literacy, education, and the production of written works declined
Complex economic systems - including taxation, trade, and the use of money - deteriorated
No more great construction projects were created. The Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire
27-180 CE The Pax Romana
117 The Roman Empire reached its peak size
284 Emperor Diocletian divided the empire
330 Constantine the Great moved the capital to Byzantium
370 Hun invasions begin
476 The Western Roman Empire fell
REASONS
Economic problems weakened the empire. | https://quizlet.com/133251347/the-fall-of-the-roman-empire-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1478198160#4_2632796633 | Title:
Headings:
Content: In 476 CE, a German king forced the last emperor of western Rome from power. (When a German king was all said and done, they only had only 20,000 people left in Rome.) The Eastern Rome Empire became the Byzantine Empire, which lasted until 1453
(He forced them out and the Eastern Roman Empire became the Byzantine Empire which lasted until 1453. Effects of the Collapse
The era following the collapse of Rome (476-1400) is often called "The Dark Ages"
MIDDLE AGES
-Europe was divided into dozens of small kingdoms
-Unlike Rome, these kingdoms had no written rule of law
-Literacy, education, and the production of written works declined
Complex economic systems - including taxation, trade, and the use of money - deteriorated
No more great construction projects were created. The Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire
27-180 CE The Pax Romana
117 The Roman Empire reached its peak size
284 Emperor Diocletian divided the empire
330 Constantine the Great moved the capital to Byzantium
370 Hun invasions begin
476 The Western Roman Empire fell
REASONS
Economic problems weakened the empire. The empire was split into east and west. The empire had grown too large. Problems in the military weakened the empire. The empire was attacked by outsiders. People did not care about the empire anymore. | https://quizlet.com/133251347/the-fall-of-the-roman-empire-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1484000694#10_2641394258 | Title: Chapter 5 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Chapter 5
Chapter 5
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Terms in this set (64)
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Chapter 4
Chapter 3
Chapter 1
Chapter 2
Content: conditioned emotional response (CER)
emotional response that has become classically conditioned to occur to learned stimuli, such as a fear of dogs or the emotional reaction that occurs when seeing an attractive person. vicarious conditioning
classical conditioning of a reflex response or emotion by watching the reaction of another person. conditioned taste aversion
development of a nausea or aversive response to a particular taste because that taste was followed by a nausea reaction, occurring after only one association. biological preparedness
referring to the tendency of animals to learn certain association, such as taste and nausea, with only one or few pairings due to the survival value of the learning. stimulus substitution
original theory in which Pavlov stated that classical conditioning occurred because the conditioned stimulus became a substitute for the unconditioned stimulus by being paired closely together. cognitive perspective
modern theory in which classical conditioning is seen to occur because the conditioned stimulus provides information or an expectancy about the coming of the unconditioned stimulus. learning
- a long lasting change in behavior resulting from experience
-although learning is not the same as behavior, most psychologists accept that learning can best be measured through changes in behavior
ivan pavlov
- a russian physiologist who inadvertently discovered a kind of learning while studying digestion in dogs
- found that the dogs learned to pair the sounds in the environment where they were fed with the food that was given to them and began to salivate simply upon hearing the sounds
- Deduced the basic principle of classic conditioning. People and animals can learn to associate neutral stimuli (e.g., sounds) wiht stimuli that produce reflexive, involuntary responses (e.g., food) and will learn to respond similarly to the new stimulus as they did to the old one (e.g., salivate)
operant conditioning
the learning of voluntary behavior through the effects of pleasant and unpleasant and unpleasant consequences to responses. a kind of learning based on the association of consequences with one's behaviors
Edward Thorndike was one of the first people to research this kind of learning. B. F. Skinner coined the term operant conditioning, and studied this form of learning over his entire career
a kind of learning based n the association of consequences with one's beaviors
Thorndike put forth the law of effect that states that if the consequences of a behavior | https://quizlet.com/136707678/chapter-5-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1484127766#1_2641531285 | Title: US Review #2: Branches of Govt Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: US Review #2: Branches of Govt
US Review #2: Branches of Govt
Key concepts:
Terms in this set (13)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
US Reading Industry & Labor CASTLE
US Chapter 16 Reading
WORLD WAR I Vocabulary, Chapter 16
WWI Kahoot Questions
Content: Congress overrides a veto by the President
If the President has vetoed a bill, the United States Constitution provides that the bill will become a law when the bill is
passed again by two-thirds of both houses of Congress
Which statement most accurately describes the exercise of power by the three branches of the United States Government? Periods of strong Presidential leadership have alternated with periods of strong congressional leadership
The Presidential veto is an example of
checks and balances
Which newspaper headline shows the operation of the system of checks and balances? "Senate Rejects President's Choice of Supreme Court Justice"
The purpose of limiting the powers of the three branches of the United States Federal Government is to
prevent the development of tyranny
Delegates at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 agreed to create a bicameral legislature as a way to
address the issue of population differences among the states
"The individual can be free only when the power of one governmental branch is balanced by the other two." - Baron de Montesquieu, 1735 (adapted)
The idea expressed in this quotation is best illustrated by which aspect of the United States Government? separation of powers
The authors of the United States Constitution believed that the voice of the people should be heard frequently. Which part of the Government was instituted to respond most directly to the will of the people? House of Representatives
The face that the United States Constitution provided for federalism and a system of checks and balances suggests that
its writers feared a concentration of political power
"...it is the opinion of this committee that a national government ought to be to be established consisting of a Supreme Legislature, Judiciary, and Executive..." -Resolution submitted by Edmund Randolph, delegate to the Constitutional Convention, 1787
In adopting this resolution, the framers of the Constitution showed their belief in the idea of
separation of powers
Base your answer to this question on the quotation below and on your knowledge of social studies. "... The nation deserves and I will select a Supreme Court justice that Americans can be proud of. The nation also deserves a dignified process of confirmation in the United States Senate, characterized by fair treatment, a fair hearing and a fair vote. I will choose a nominee in a timely manner so that the hearing and the vote can be completed before the new Supreme Court term begins..." - President George W. Bush, 2005
Which constitutional principle is suggested by this quotation? | https://quizlet.com/136805066/us-review-2-branches-of-govt-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1486556157#0_2645150764 | Title: Secondary Lesions Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Secondary Lesions
Secondary Lesions
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Content: Secondary Lesions Flashcards | Quizlet
Secondary Lesions
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Secondary lesion
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-scale, crust, excoriation, erosion, ulcer, atrophy, lichenification, scar-keloid, fissure, striae
-Changes in an area of primary pathology due to secondary events (scratching, infection, trauma, inapprop treatments)
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scale
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has scaly appearance
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1487886066#0_2646880213 | Title:
Headings:
Content: AP Government Final Review Flashcards | Quizlet
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Terms in this set (60)
congress adopted the War Powers Resolution to
limit the president's authority to commit troops overseas
which of the following typed of committee deals with broad areas of public policy and can be found in both houses of Congress? joint
which of the following explains why any attempt to reduce Social Security benefits is difficult? there are many voters who support social security
which of the following describes the president's cabinet? its members have varying levels of influence on presidential decisions
the development and persistence of the two-party system in the United States is best accounted for by
single member legislative districts
the concept of realignment refers to changes in
the social bases of the parties' voting support
much of the steady increase in federal government expenditures since 1960 has been caused by
increases in entitlement programs
establishing the boundaries of the united states congressional districts to give one party an advantage over another party is referred to as
gerrymandering
congress is most likely to exert oversight of the executive bureaucracy in which of the following ways? controlling an executive agency's annual budget
which of the following statements about voting behavior in national elections is most accurate? senior citizens are more likely to vote than college students
which of the following best explains why the winner of a presidential election usually claims to have a mandate from voters? the allocation of electoral votes in the winner take all system exaggerates the margin of victory
typically, presidential candidates implement their campaign strategies by
focusing on larger, competitive states, because they might tip the balance of the electoral college
the supremacy clause in the constitution states that
federal law takes precedence over state law when the laws conflict
a policy that sets emission standards for automobiles is an example of
regulatory policy
the idea that judges ought to freely strike down laws that are inconsistent with their understanding of the constitution is known as
judicial activism
the most significant difference between the constitution of 1787 and the articles of confederation was that the constitution
provided for a strong national government with many powers, while the articles created a weak central government with few independent powers
the term bicameralism refers to the
establishment of two legislative chambers that have different structures and rules
children are most likely to adopt the party identification
of their parents
the media's effect on public opinion can best be described as
influencing which issues the public sees as important
when people vote for some candidates from one party and other candidates from another party, it is called
ticket splitting
the doctrine of stare decisis is significant for which of the following reasons? it is the principle that affirms that courts are bound by prior decisions
the expansion of the executive branch since 1939 has affected the separation of powers by
increasing presidential control over the legislative process
the most significant trend in federal-state relations during the 1980s was
shifting the responsibilities and costs for many programs to state governments
congress has the constitutional power to control the judicial branch by
determining the size of the supreme court
which of the following is most important for getting an accurate measure of public opinion in a survey
selecting a random sample
which of the following clauses in the constitution justifies the implied powers doctrine? | https://quizlet.com/139155755/ap-government-final-review-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1487886066#1_2646884438 | Title:
Headings:
Content: its members have varying levels of influence on presidential decisions
the development and persistence of the two-party system in the United States is best accounted for by
single member legislative districts
the concept of realignment refers to changes in
the social bases of the parties' voting support
much of the steady increase in federal government expenditures since 1960 has been caused by
increases in entitlement programs
establishing the boundaries of the united states congressional districts to give one party an advantage over another party is referred to as
gerrymandering
congress is most likely to exert oversight of the executive bureaucracy in which of the following ways? controlling an executive agency's annual budget
which of the following statements about voting behavior in national elections is most accurate? senior citizens are more likely to vote than college students
which of the following best explains why the winner of a presidential election usually claims to have a mandate from voters? the allocation of electoral votes in the winner take all system exaggerates the margin of victory
typically, presidential candidates implement their campaign strategies by
focusing on larger, competitive states, because they might tip the balance of the electoral college
the supremacy clause in the constitution states that
federal law takes precedence over state law when the laws conflict
a policy that sets emission standards for automobiles is an example of
regulatory policy
the idea that judges ought to freely strike down laws that are inconsistent with their understanding of the constitution is known as
judicial activism
the most significant difference between the constitution of 1787 and the articles of confederation was that the constitution
provided for a strong national government with many powers, while the articles created a weak central government with few independent powers
the term bicameralism refers to the
establishment of two legislative chambers that have different structures and rules
children are most likely to adopt the party identification
of their parents
the media's effect on public opinion can best be described as
influencing which issues the public sees as important
when people vote for some candidates from one party and other candidates from another party, it is called
ticket splitting
the doctrine of stare decisis is significant for which of the following reasons? it is the principle that affirms that courts are bound by prior decisions
the expansion of the executive branch since 1939 has affected the separation of powers by
increasing presidential control over the legislative process
the most significant trend in federal-state relations during the 1980s was
shifting the responsibilities and costs for many programs to state governments
congress has the constitutional power to control the judicial branch by
determining the size of the supreme court
which of the following is most important for getting an accurate measure of public opinion in a survey
selecting a random sample
which of the following clauses in the constitution justifies the implied powers doctrine? the necessary and proper clause
interest groups use political action committees to
raise and spend money on election campaigns
the united states fish and wildlife service will spend money appropriated by congress to maintain wildlife refuges. this action is an example of
bureaucratic implementation of law
the framers of the constitution designed which of the following to be least responsive to public opinion? the courts
which of the following identifies the formal procedure for ending a filibuster
cloture
which of the following best accounts for the lack of success generally encountered by minor political parties in electing members to the house or senate? general elections in the united states are based on the winner take all principle
interest groups are protected under the constitution by the
first amendment
the nineteenth amendment to the constitution, the equal rights amendment, and title IX of the education amendments of 1972 were all directed toward the goal of
equality for women
if congress wanted to effect a change in the social security payroll tax, to what congressional committee would the task initially be assigned? house ways and means committee
(table here)
which of the following statements is supported by the information in the table
partisanship was a good predictor of the way a person voted
which of the following concepts refers to the beliefs about government and politics that people in the united states hold most deeply? | https://quizlet.com/139155755/ap-government-final-review-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1489168514#5_2648501682 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Substitutes more realistic interpretations for the biased thoughts
5. Identifies the dysfunctional beliefs that predispose him or her to distort experiences
Basic Concepts
"The general thrust of cognitive therapy is that emotional responses are largely dependent on cognitive appraisals of the significance of environmental cues." (Wright, Beck, & Thase, 2003)
- Basic Concepts include automatic thoughts and schemas or core beliefs. Automatic Thoughts
Automatic thoughts— thoughts that occur rapidly in response to a situation and without rational analysis; sometimes called cognitive errors. These thoughts are often negative and based on erroneous logic. Some examples are: - Arbitrary inference
- Overgeneralization
- Dichotomous thinking
- Selective abstraction
- Magnification
- Minimization
- Catastrophic thinking
- Personalization
- Mind reading
- Change fallacy
- Fairness fallacy
- Global labeling
- Blaming
- Shoulds
Schemas (core beliefs)
- "Cognitive structures that consist of the individual's fundamental beliefs and assumptions, which develop early in life from personal experiences and identification with significant others. These concepts are reinforced by further learning experiences and, in turn, influence the formation of other beliefs, values, and attitudes." ( Beck & Weishaar, 2005)
- Schemas may be adaptive or maladaptive, general or specific, and positive or negative. | https://quizlet.com/14013284/cognitive-therapy-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1493382140#0_2654902509 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Philosophy Flashcards | Quizlet
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Euthanasia
Terms in this set (31)
What are the different kinds of Euthanasia? voluntary active, voluntary passive, involuntary active, involuntary passive
main issue
morality of active euthanasia, should euthanasia be legalized?, physician assisted suicide
standard view
permits passive but rejects active
James Rachels
Challenged the standard view and was for active euthanasia. Said it was more humane, leads to decisions on irrelevant grounds, killing and allowing to die have no moral differences, most common arguments are invalid. Daniel Callahan
Said there was a major distinction between killing and allowing to die. Defended by metaphysical, moral, and medical
metaphysical
there is a difference in what nature does and what we do
moral
said there is no moral difference in killing and allowing to die because they are both wrong
medical
disease as cause of death can be cured by caring for the dying
Dan W. Brock
For active voluntary euthanasia. Individual self determination - individuals take responsibility for themselves, control how and when they die and Individual well being - continued life is no longer seen as a benefit, but now as a burden
Stephen G. Potts
Upheld standard view, against active, for passive. Had 9 risks of institutionalization
1. reduced pressure to improve treatment
won't spend time trying to find cures when there is the option of euthanasia
2. | https://quizlet.com/14327858/philosophy-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1493382140#10_2654917646 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Active Euthanasia is when a physician is the person who ultimately kills the patient. There is a huge moral significance because there is a lot of risks to active euthanasia (patient could not have consented, ect.). The standard view upholds passive euthanasia and rejects active euthanasia. - Rachel was for active euthanasia and Callahan was against it. What is your view on euthanasia. Defend it with arguments and references to the readings. My view on euthanasia is similar to the standard view. I agree with passive voluntary euthanasia and disagree with active voluntary euthanasia. Like Stephen G. Potts, I do not think voluntary active euthanasia should be legalized but I do endorse the "right to die" and agree that that does not entail the right to receive assistance in suicide or the right to be killed. I, like Stephen G. Potts, think there is a lot of potential risks to legalizing the practice of active euthanasia. | https://quizlet.com/14327858/philosophy-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1493776480#15_2655611238 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Or does the government control these kinds of choices? How can a group of workers, each specializing in certain tasks, produce so much more than the same number of workers who try to produce the entire good or service by themselves? Adam Smith offered three reasons. List them and briefly describe the rationale behind each. First, specialization in a particular small job allows workers to focus on the types of production where they have an advantage. People have different skills, talents, and interests, so they will be better at some jobs than others. The particular advantages workers may be based on educational choices, which are in turn shaped by interests and talents: for example, only those with medical degrees qualify to become doctors. Second, workers who specialize in certain tasks often learn to produce more quickly and with higher quality. This pattern holds true for many workers, including assembly line laborers who build cars, stylists who cut hair, and doctors who perform heart surgery. | https://quizlet.com/143511745/chapter-1-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1496692287#0_2659441052 | Title: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
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Topic Test Review#12 Defining Communicable Disease…
Responding to Violence and Abuse
Topic Test Review#13 The Endocrine and Reproductiv…
Body Image and Eating Disorders
Content: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse Flashcards | Quizlet
Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
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Peer pressure is the influence of people much older or much younger. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. Click card to see definition 👆
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False
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Being a member of a gang is necessary if you want to feel safe. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. Click card to see definition 👆
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False
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Peer pressure is the influence of people much older or much younger. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. False
Being a member of a gang is necessary if you want to feel safe. | https://quizlet.com/144758786/topic-test-review10-healthy-friendships-dating-relationships-peer-pressure-and-refusal-skills-responding-to-violence-and-abuse-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1496692287#1_2659443301 | Title: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
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Terms in this set (15)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Topic Test Review#12 Defining Communicable Disease…
Responding to Violence and Abuse
Topic Test Review#13 The Endocrine and Reproductiv…
Body Image and Eating Disorders
Content: You just studied 15 terms! Now up your study game with Learn mode. Try Learn mode
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Peer pressure is the influence of people much older or much younger. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. False
Being a member of a gang is necessary if you want to feel safe. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. False
A person who tries to embarrass others in class so he can feel better about himself is committing which of the following acts of violence? A.
bullying
B.
hazing
C.
gang violence
D.
none of the above
Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A
People often date to find companionship and support and to develop new friendships. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. | https://quizlet.com/144758786/topic-test-review10-healthy-friendships-dating-relationships-peer-pressure-and-refusal-skills-responding-to-violence-and-abuse-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1496692287#2_2659445129 | Title: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
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Terms in this set (15)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Topic Test Review#12 Defining Communicable Disease…
Responding to Violence and Abuse
Topic Test Review#13 The Endocrine and Reproductiv…
Body Image and Eating Disorders
Content: Please select the best answer from the choices provided. False
A person who tries to embarrass others in class so he can feel better about himself is committing which of the following acts of violence? A.
bullying
B.
hazing
C.
gang violence
D.
none of the above
Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A
People often date to find companionship and support and to develop new friendships. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. True
The BEST way to refuse an offer to smoke or do drugs is to __________. A.
firmly say "no"
B.
yell "NO" and run away as fast as you can
C.
have your friends tell the person that is offering "no"
D.
say you will do it the next time you are all together
Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A
Offering guidance, using good judgment, and knowing when to get help are all aspects of __________. A.
a bossy friend
B.
an insecure person
C.
a leader
D.
a shy person
Please select the best answer from the choices provided. C
A peer is someone that is considered your superior and knows more than you. | https://quizlet.com/144758786/topic-test-review10-healthy-friendships-dating-relationships-peer-pressure-and-refusal-skills-responding-to-violence-and-abuse-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1496692287#8_2659456842 | Title: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
Topic Test Review#10 Healthy Friendships, Dating Relationships, Peer Pressure and Refusal Skills, Responding to Violence and Abuse
PLAY
Terms in this set (15)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Topic Test Review#12 Defining Communicable Disease…
Responding to Violence and Abuse
Topic Test Review#13 The Endocrine and Reproductiv…
Body Image and Eating Disorders
Content: ANSWER: Responses will vary. A sample response follows: It helps to develop and strengthen common goals. Working together strengthens the bonds among friends and provides a sense of support. When people share the same interests, it also promotes a sense of belonging. Why do people give in to negative peer pressure? ANSWER: Responses will vary. A sample response follows: | https://quizlet.com/144758786/topic-test-review10-healthy-friendships-dating-relationships-peer-pressure-and-refusal-skills-responding-to-violence-and-abuse-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1497311724#2_2660354285 | Title:
Headings:
Content: What emerging relationship trend between negative campaign tone and voter turnout is depicted on the graph starting in 1988? Both negative campaigns and voter turnout have continually decreased but it is unclear whether they are related. As negative ads have steadily decreased, voter turnout has steadily increased, indicating they have a direct relationship. Negative campaigns have steadily increased and it is possible that it increased voter turnout but the evidence is not strong. The increase in negative campaigning matches to a proportional decrease in voter turnout, showing a strong relationship. Negative campaigns have steadily increased and it is possible that it increased voter turnout but the evidence is not strong. A primary election is the
name given to any national general election and includes both presidential and midterm elections
reason that many people give for why the current electoral process in the country needs changes
method used to select candidates to run in an election, may be open or closed to other parties
type of election where the people vote only for officials for the state and local levels of government
method used to select candidates to run in an election, may be open or closed to other parties
In the Election of 2008, Florida had 27 electoral votes. How do you explain the data shown on this map? The state lost representatives and electoral votes because census data revealed a population decrease. Data on this map reflect changes in federal legislation regarding the organization of the electoral system. | https://quizlet.com/144970203/306-elections-and-voting-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1497311724#3_2660356070 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Negative campaigns have steadily increased and it is possible that it increased voter turnout but the evidence is not strong. A primary election is the
name given to any national general election and includes both presidential and midterm elections
reason that many people give for why the current electoral process in the country needs changes
method used to select candidates to run in an election, may be open or closed to other parties
type of election where the people vote only for officials for the state and local levels of government
method used to select candidates to run in an election, may be open or closed to other parties
In the Election of 2008, Florida had 27 electoral votes. How do you explain the data shown on this map? The state lost representatives and electoral votes because census data revealed a population decrease. Data on this map reflect changes in federal legislation regarding the organization of the electoral system. It is a mistake of the cartographer, as Florida still has 27 electoral votes for upcoming presidential elections. Florida gained representatives and thus electoral votes because of census data showing population increase. Florida gained representatives and thus electoral votes because of census data showing population increase. THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1498302262#6_2661858413 | Title: Unit 2: Farmers, 2nd Industrial Revolution Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Unit 2: Farmers, 2nd Industrial Revolution
Unit 2: Farmers, 2nd Industrial Revolution
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Industrial Revolution
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Unit 1: Civil War, Reconstruction, & Westward Expa…
Enlightenment and French Revolution
Content: In addition, immigrants arrived in major cities in waves. The number of factory workers increased sharply. By the end of the 19th century, the United States had become a manufacturing economy. Economic challenges to farmers and farmers responses to those challenges in the mid to late 1800s
The primary economic problem was the Civil War and the Reconstruction period. Farms and plantations alike were looted if not burned, and the infrastructure needed to bring products to market were largely destroyed. Farmers and plantation owners, having lost their slaves, found themselves needing to actually pay people to do work. Changes that occurred as the United States shifted from an agrarian to an industrial society
1) It was the California gold fields, the discovery of rich gold veins in the late 1840s, that made the US a rich country. That gold encouraged westward expansion, it paid for the building of the railroads. The causes, course, and consequences of the labor movement in the late 1800s and early 1900s
At the end of the Civil War, the United States entered a period of enormous change. American industry expanded. | https://quizlet.com/145288659/unit-2-farmers-2nd-industrial-revolution-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1499208725#1_2663281242 | Title: AP Literature - Literary Criticism & Theory Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: AP Literature - Literary Criticism & Theory
AP Literature - Literary Criticism & Theory
Formalist or "New Criticism"
Terms in this set (9)
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Formalist or "New Criticism"
- "The text, the text, and nothing but the text." - close reading of literary texts
- when analyzing a work, only evidence from the text (intrinsic) is worth considering nothing from the outside (extrinsic)
- questions of technique are most important for meaning
- seek to understand how author or poet uses figures of speech, symbolism, narrative frames, and the other literary tools at his disposal to achieve "unity of effect"
- a work of literature must stand or fall on its own merits
- How do the literary elements found in a particular text work together to achieve a unified artistic effect? Biographical Criticism
- studies the events in the life of the author in order to determine how they may have influenced the author's life
- What real life event or personality inspired the author to create a given plot twist or character? - Where does real life leave off and the imagination take over? Historical Criticism
- examine the social and intellectual milieu (environment) in which the author wrote
- consider the politics and social movements prevalent during the time period of the text's creation
- do so in order to determine how the literature under examination is both the product and shaper of society
- How did the text in question influence contemporary events and how did contemporary events influence the author's creative choices? Feminist Criticism
- investigate how a literary work either tends to serve or to challenge a patriarchal (male dominated) view of society
- literature should be analyzed with the goal of explaining how the text exemplifies or reveals important insights about sex roles and society's structure
- traditional "canon" (books that are commonly read and are valued as sacred or genuine) tends to define women as "other", or an object, compared to the male's high statues
- focuses on social relationships, including the patterns of thought, behavior, values, enfranchisement and power between the sexes
- "a political act whose aim is not simply to interpret the world but to change it by changing the consciousness of those who read and their relation to what they read..." (Judith Fetterly)
- How does the text mirror or question a male-dominated (phallocentric) view of reality? - How are feminine and masculine defined and/ or qualified within the text? - How are women represented in texts written by men? - How does the text display the power relationships between genders? | https://quizlet.com/145869090/ap-literature-literary-criticism-theory-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1499208725#2_2663284274 | Title: AP Literature - Literary Criticism & Theory Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: AP Literature - Literary Criticism & Theory
AP Literature - Literary Criticism & Theory
Formalist or "New Criticism"
Terms in this set (9)
Content: Historical Criticism
- examine the social and intellectual milieu (environment) in which the author wrote
- consider the politics and social movements prevalent during the time period of the text's creation
- do so in order to determine how the literature under examination is both the product and shaper of society
- How did the text in question influence contemporary events and how did contemporary events influence the author's creative choices? Feminist Criticism
- investigate how a literary work either tends to serve or to challenge a patriarchal (male dominated) view of society
- literature should be analyzed with the goal of explaining how the text exemplifies or reveals important insights about sex roles and society's structure
- traditional "canon" (books that are commonly read and are valued as sacred or genuine) tends to define women as "other", or an object, compared to the male's high statues
- focuses on social relationships, including the patterns of thought, behavior, values, enfranchisement and power between the sexes
- "a political act whose aim is not simply to interpret the world but to change it by changing the consciousness of those who read and their relation to what they read..." (Judith Fetterly)
- How does the text mirror or question a male-dominated (phallocentric) view of reality? - How are feminine and masculine defined and/ or qualified within the text? - How are women represented in texts written by men? - How does the text display the power relationships between genders? Marxist Criticism
- inspired by the historical, economic and sociological theory of Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels
- focus on the connections between the content or form of a literary work and the economic, class, social or ideological factors that have shaped and determined it
- perpetually oriented to investigating the social realities to condition works of art
- worried about matters of class status, economic conditions, what is published and what is repressed in the literary marketplace, the preferences of the reading public, and so forth
- Who has the power/ money in society? Who does not? What happens as a result? - How are the privileged and working classes conveyed? - How are class distinctions established? | https://quizlet.com/145869090/ap-literature-literary-criticism-theory-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1499815076#14_2664277915 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Hypothesis 4.Prediction 5.Experiment 6. Results 7. Conclusion
Describe and distinguish between objective and subjective observations
1. objective - those that can be verified repeated and consistently interpreted by different observers. Often involve counting or measuring. 2. subjective - observations are those that are observer specific and may not be interpreted in the same way by different people. Subjective observations must be transformed into more objective observations
Independent Variable
the cause
Dependent Variable
the effect
control
in which all the factors are the same as the test group, except that the factor being tested is left in its normal, manipulated state
protocol
description of steps in a scientific investigation is often referred to as a protocol
experiment
the purpose of an experiment is to test a hypothesis
Prokaryotes
are unicellular organisms that lack membrane bound organelles including a nucleus. Function without true nuclei and membrane bound organelles. DNA is organized differently from that of all other organisms. | https://quizlet.com/14618891/biology-lab-m-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1503626493#0_2669922825 | Title: Best psychology chapter 1 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: psychology chapter 1
psychology chapter 1
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PSYCH CH2
Psychology 101-104 Flashcards
psych. ch.7- learning
Content: Best psychology chapter 1 Flashcards | Quizlet
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psychology chapter 1
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experiment
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a research method in which an investigator manipulates one or more factors (independent variables) to observe the effect on some behavior or mental progress (dependent variable)
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nature-nurtures
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the longstanding controversy over the relative contributions that genes and experience make to the development of psychological traits and behaviors
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experiment
a research method in which an investigator manipulates one or more factors (independent variables) to observe the effect on some behavior or mental progress (dependent variable)
nature-nurtures
the longstanding controversy over the relative contributions that genes and experience make to the development of psychological traits and behaviors
case
study of descriptive technique in which one individual or group is studied in depth in the hope of revealing universal principles
effect
testing ____ is the enhanced memory after retrieving, rather than simply rereading information. also referred to as retrieval practice effect
counseling
psychology a branch of psychology that assists people with problems in living (often related to school, work, or marriage) and in achieving greater well-being
natural
selection is the principle that those chance inherited traits enter enable an organism to survive and reproduce in a particular environment will most likely be passed on succeeding generations
behavior
genetics is the study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior
independent
variable in an experiment, the factor that is manipulated; the variable whose effect is being studied
random
sample a sample that fairly represents a population because each member has an equal chance of inclusion
hypnosis
a social interaction in which one person (the hypnotist) suggests to another (the subject) that certain perceptions, feelings, thoughts, or behaviors will spontaneously occur
positive
psychology the scientific study of human flourishing, with the goals of discovering and promoting strengths and virtues that help individuals and communities to thrive
survey
a descriptive technique for obtaining the self reported attitudes or behaviors of a particular group, usually by questioning a representative, random sample of the group
naturalistic
observation a descriptive technique of observing and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to manipulate and control the situation
culture
the enduring behaviors , ideas, attitudes, values and traditions shared by a group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next
psychology
the science of behavior and mental processes
psychiatry
a branch of medicine dealing with psychological disorders; practiced by physicians who sometimes provide medical (for example, drug) treatments as well as psychological therapy
applied
research scientific study that aims to solve practical problems
basic
research pure science that aims to increase the scientific knowledge base
analysis
levels of ___ are differing complementary views, from biological to psychological to social-cultural, for analyzing any given phenomenon
bio-psychosocial
approach an integrated approach that incorporates biological, psychological, and social-cultural levels of analysis
intuition
an effortless, immediate, automatic feeling or thought. as contrasted with explicit, conscious reasoning
double-blind
procedure an experimental procedure in which both the research participants and the research staff are ignorant (blind) about whether the research participants have received the treatment or placebo
informed
consent giving potential participants enough information about a study to enable them to choose whether they wish to participate
humanistic psychology
historically significant perspective that emphasized human growth potential
clinical
psychology a branch that studies, assesses, and treats people with psychological disorders
operational
definition a carefully worded statement of the exact procedures (operations) used in a research study
functionalism
early school of thought promoted by William James, influenced by Darwin; explored how mental and behavioral processes function and enable the organism to adapt, survive, and flourish
cognitive neuroscience
the interdisciplinary study of the brain activity linked with cognition (including perception, thinking, memory and language
evolutionary
psychology is the study of evolution of behavior and the mind, using principles of natural selection
hindsight
bias the tendency to believe, after learning an outcome, that one would have foreseen it, (aka I-knew-it-all-along phenomenon)
structuralism
early school of thought promoted by windy and titchener; used introspection to reveal the structure of the human mind
debriefing
the postcxperimentalexplanation of a study, including its purpose and any deceptions, to its participants
community
psychology a branch of psychology that studies how people interact with their social environments and how social institutions affect individuals and groups
theory
an explanation using an interpreted set of principles that organizes observations and predicts behaviors or events
confounding
variable a factor other than the factor being studied that might produce an effect
correlation
a measure of the extent to which two factors vary together, and thus of how well either factor predicts the other
experimental
group in an experiment, the group exposed to the treatment, that is, to one version of the independent variable
replication
repeating the essence of a research study, usually with different participants in different situations, to see whether the basic finding can be reproduced
dependent
variable in an experiment, the outcome that is measured; | https://quizlet.com/149440376/psychology-chapter-1-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1507512968#10_2676478748 | Title:
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Content: In addition to encouraging you to meet like-minded people and develop your interests, these activities also show future employers and postsecondary schools that you are motivated and engaged. And the more you shape your thoughts about a career, the better you'll know how to prepare for it. How are the two passages similar? Both encourage students to find ways to improve the world around them. Read Pat Mora's poem quoted in "The Leader in the Mirror." Immigrants
wrap their babies in the American flag,
feed them mashed hot dogs and apple pie,
name them Bill and Daisy,
buy them blonde dolls that blink blue
eyes or a football and tiny cleats
before the baby can even walk,
speak to them in thick English
Now read the excerpt from Mora's essay "The Leader in the Mirror." My own father was once a paper boy for the newspaper hosting the banquet. I might not have known that fact, nor his long history of hard work, had I not been listening to him with my tape recorder a few years ago. I did not want the students to wait as long as I had to begin preserving the rich inheritance of their family voices. The strength of their heritage would give them the courage to face the future. | https://quizlet.com/152595057/purpose-and-format-in-the-leader-in-the-mirrorquiz-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1507749367#2_2676888406 | Title:
Headings:
Content: What are some similarities and differences between descriptive research and experimental research design? Descriptive research answers scientific questions through observation, while experimental research design answers scientific questions by testing a hypothesis through the use of a series of carefully controlled steps. They are similar because they are both the two methods used to answer questions. What are the steps of the scientific method as we discussed them? recognize the problem, form a hypothesis, test your hypothesis, analyze your data, draw conclusions, and communicate your results
Why should bias be eliminated? because if you know the answer to a problem, then there is no point in doing the experiment. if you eliminate bias, you learn something. eliminating bias gives you an accurate result, and it is more reliable. What is the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable? an independent variable is the factor that changes, and the dependent variable is the result or outcome being measured
Why are many constants needed? | https://quizlet.com/152834854/science-ch1-27-terms-by-hermannator21-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1512485690#0_2683434127 | Title: Chapter 10 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Chapter 10
Chapter 10
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Content: Chapter 10 Flashcards | Quizlet
Chapter 10
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What was President Jackson's response to nullification? Click card to see definition 👆
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He requested Congress to pass the Force Bill supporting his effort to enforce federal law. Click again to see term 👆
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What was President Jackson's response to nullification? He requested Congress to pass the Force Bill supporting his effort to enforce federal law. | https://quizlet.com/156164446/chapter-10-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1512922120#0_2684036734 | Title: Accounting Chapter 10 Questions Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Accounting Chapter 10 Questions
Accounting Chapter 10 Questions
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Content: Accounting Chapter 10 Questions Flashcards | Quizlet
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Plant assets may properly include
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None of these
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Which of the following is not a major characteristic of a plant asset
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Acquired for resale
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Plant assets may properly include
None of these
Which of the following is not a major characteristic of a plant asset
Acquired for resale
Which of these is not a major characteristic of a plant asset
All of these are major characteristics of a plant asset
Cotton Hotel Corporation recently purchased Emporia Hotel and the land on which it is located with the plan to tear down the Emporia Hotel and build a new luxury hotel on the site. The cost of the Emporia Hotel should be: Capitalized as part of the cost of the land
The cost of land does not include
Costs of improvements with limited lives
The cost of land typically includes the purchase price and all of the following costs EXCEPT
Private driveways and parking lots
If a corporation purchases a lot and building and subsequently tears down the building and sues the property as a parking lot, the proper accounting treatment of the cost of the building would depend on
The intention of management for th property when the building is acquired
The debit for a sales tax properly levied and paid on the purchase of machinery preferably would be a charge to
The machinery account
Fences and parking lots are reported on the balance sheet as
Land improvements
Historical cost is the basis advocated for recording the acquisition of property, plant, and equipment for all the following reasons except: Property, plant, and equipment items are always acquired at their original historical cost
To be consistent with the historical cost principle, overhead costs incurred by an enterprise constructing its own building should be
Allocated on a pro rata basis between the asset and normal operations
Which of the following costs are capitalized for self-constructed assets
Materials, labor, and overhead
Which of the following assets do not qualify for capitalization of interest costs incurred during construction of the assets
Assets not currently undergoing the activities necessary to prepare them for their intended use
Assets that qualify for interest cost capitalization include
Assets under construction for company's own use
When computing the amount of interest cost to be capitalized, the concept of "avoidable interest" refers to
The portion of total interest cost which would not have been inc urged if expenditures for asset construction had not been made
The period of time during which interest must be capitalized ends when
The asset is substantially complete and ready or its intended use
Which the following statements is true regarding capitalization of interest
The amount of interest cost capitalized during the period should not exceed the actual interest cost incurred
Construction of a qualifying asset is started on april 1 and finished on december 1. The fraction used to multiply an expenditure made on april 1 to find weighted average accumulated expenditures is
8/12
When funds are borrowed to pay for construction of assets that qualify for capitalization of interest, the excess funds not needed to pay for construction may be temporarily invested in interest-bearing securities. Interest earned on these temporary investments should be
Recognized as revenue for the period
Interest cost that is capitalized should
None of these
Which of the following is not a condition that must be satisfied before interest capitalization can begin on a qualifying asset
the interest rate is equal to or greater than the company's cost of capital
Which of the following is the recommended approach to handling interest incurred in financing the construction of property, plant, and equipment
Capitalize only the actual interest costs incurred during construction
Which of the following nonmonetary exchange transactions represents a culmination of the earning process? Exchange of assets with a difference in future cash flows
When boot is involved in an exchange having commercial substance
Gains or losses are recognized in their entirety
The cost of a non monetary asset acquired in exchange for another non monetary asset and the exchange has commercial substance is usually recorded at
The fair value of the asset given up and a gain or loss is recognized
Ringler Corporation exchanges one plant asset for a similar plant asset and gives cash in the exchange. | https://quizlet.com/156381799/accounting-chapter-10-questions-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1513248737#13_2684450700 | Title:
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Content: New England shipbuilders saw their businesses decline. Exports fell steeply. Smuggling became widespread. Seaport cities were abandoned. How did the conflict with Britain and France change the role of the federal government during Jefferson's administration? The Embargo Act was Jefferson's attempt to avoid a military conflict with Europe. It increased the power of the government by restricting trade. How did the War of 1812 influence American economic policy? Businesses became supportive of tariffs. It led to the creation of a national bank. | https://quizlet.com/156524544/chapter-7-study-guide-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1514424714#2_2686184664 | Title: AP Psychology Ch. 2 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: AP Psychology Ch. 2
AP Psychology Ch. 2
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AP Psychology Ch. 2 second half
Psy 101 CH. 2
Psy 101 Ch.3
AP Psychology Chapter 3
Content: Measurement and description
If a psychologist hopes that his research will help to solve some practical problem, his hope reflects with goal of science? Application and control
A tentative statement about the relationship between two or more variables is a
Hypothesis
Mrs. Smith, an elementary school teacher, believes that girls are smarter than boys. She predicts that the girls in her class will learn more than the boys during the school year. Her prediction is a
Hypothesis
Scientific theories are most directly associated with which goal of science? Understanding and prediction
The first step in a scientific investigation is
To formulate a testable hypothesis
In scientific investigation a researcher must clearly define the variables under study by precisely describing how they will be measured or controlled. These definitions are referred to as
Operational definitions
A researcher decides exactly how his research project will be conducted when
Selecting a research method and designing a study
Statistical procedures are used during which step of conducting a scientific method
Analyze the data and draw conclusions
Most typically, researchers report their findings
In a journal
The two main advantages of the scientific approach are sciences
Clarity and precision and intolerance of error
The different general strategies for conducting scientific investigation are referred to as
Research methods
The two main types of research methods used in psychology are the
Experimental and descriptive/correlational research methods
The research method in which the investigator manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether any changes occur in a second variable as a result is the
Experimental method
In experimental research, the variable that is manipulated by the researcher so that its impact on another variable on another variable may be assessed is the
Independent variable
In experimental research, the variable that the researcher measures because it is thought to be affected by the manipulation of another variable is the
Controlled variable
If a researcher varies the loudness of music in a factory to observe it's effect on the rate of productivity of the employees, the independent variable is the
Loudness of the music being played
In experimental research, subjects in the experimental group
Receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable
In experimental research, subjects that do not Receive special treatment in regard to the independent variable are the
Control group
Subjects in the control group should be ____ subjects in the experimental groups in all respects except for the treatment they receive in regards to the ____. Very similar to ; independent variable
Variables, other than the independent variable, that seem likely to influence the behavior of subjects in a study are called
Extraneous variables
Which of the following is NOT a variation that the experimental method use? Use an experimental group only and have no control group
Compared to the other scientific research methods, the principal advantage of the experimental method is it
Permits conclusions about cause and effect relationships
A disadvantage or limitation of the experimental research method is
It frequently takes place under artificial circumstances
When studying a research question where it would be impractical to manipulate the variables of interest, a researcher would use a
Descriptive/ correlational method
Which of the following is NOT a descriptive/ correlational research method
Experiment
Naturalistic observation case studies and surveys all have in common that
They involve describing behavior
If a researcher studied helping behavior be observing how often shoppers stopped to help an individual pickup her dropped packages they would be using the
Naturalistic observation method
The research method in which a researcher conducts an in depth investigation of an individual subject is the
Case study method
A number of techniques such as interviews, direct observations, and psychological testing may be used when a researcher is conducting
A case study
If a researcher is interested in an individual's attitude toward animal rights issues they would most likely conduct
A survey
The principal advantage of descriptive/ correlational research method is they
Can examine research questions that because of the practical and ethical reasons cannot be studied with other methods
The principal disadvantage of the descriptive/ correlational research method is
Since researchers cannot control variables of interest, conclusions concerning cause of effect relationships are not appropriate. THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
AP Psychology Ch. | https://quizlet.com/157370868/ap-psychology-ch-2-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1514424714#3_2686189904 | Title: AP Psychology Ch. 2 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: AP Psychology Ch. 2
AP Psychology Ch. 2
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AP Psychology Ch. 2 second half
Psy 101 CH. 2
Psy 101 Ch.3
AP Psychology Chapter 3
Content: These definitions are referred to as
Operational definitions
A researcher decides exactly how his research project will be conducted when
Selecting a research method and designing a study
Statistical procedures are used during which step of conducting a scientific method
Analyze the data and draw conclusions
Most typically, researchers report their findings
In a journal
The two main advantages of the scientific approach are sciences
Clarity and precision and intolerance of error
The different general strategies for conducting scientific investigation are referred to as
Research methods
The two main types of research methods used in psychology are the
Experimental and descriptive/correlational research methods
The research method in which the investigator manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether any changes occur in a second variable as a result is the
Experimental method
In experimental research, the variable that is manipulated by the researcher so that its impact on another variable on another variable may be assessed is the
Independent variable
In experimental research, the variable that the researcher measures because it is thought to be affected by the manipulation of another variable is the
Controlled variable
If a researcher varies the loudness of music in a factory to observe it's effect on the rate of productivity of the employees, the independent variable is the
Loudness of the music being played
In experimental research, subjects in the experimental group
Receive some special treatment in regard to the independent variable
In experimental research, subjects that do not Receive special treatment in regard to the independent variable are the
Control group
Subjects in the control group should be ____ subjects in the experimental groups in all respects except for the treatment they receive in regards to the ____. Very similar to ; independent variable
Variables, other than the independent variable, that seem likely to influence the behavior of subjects in a study are called
Extraneous variables
Which of the following is NOT a variation that the experimental method use? Use an experimental group only and have no control group
Compared to the other scientific research methods, the principal advantage of the experimental method is it
Permits conclusions about cause and effect relationships
A disadvantage or limitation of the experimental research method is
It frequently takes place under artificial circumstances
When studying a research question where it would be impractical to manipulate the variables of interest, a researcher would use a
Descriptive/ correlational method
Which of the following is NOT a descriptive/ correlational research method
Experiment
Naturalistic observation case studies and surveys all have in common that
They involve describing behavior
If a researcher studied helping behavior be observing how often shoppers stopped to help an individual pickup her dropped packages they would be using the
Naturalistic observation method
The research method in which a researcher conducts an in depth investigation of an individual subject is the
Case study method
A number of techniques such as interviews, direct observations, and psychological testing may be used when a researcher is conducting
A case study
If a researcher is interested in an individual's attitude toward animal rights issues they would most likely conduct
A survey
The principal advantage of descriptive/ correlational research method is they
Can examine research questions that because of the practical and ethical reasons cannot be studied with other methods
The principal disadvantage of the descriptive/ correlational research method is
Since researchers cannot control variables of interest, conclusions concerning cause of effect relationships are not appropriate. THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
AP Psychology Ch. 2 second half
35 terms
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Psy 101 CH. 2
6 terms
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Psy 101 Ch.3
66 terms
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AP Psychology Chapter 3
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CP5 "Rivers of Love" Major Quiz #1
183 terms
hmarsh12
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1514453394#14_2686232545 | Title:
Headings:
Content: d. People evacuated and did not return. people evacuated and returned slowly
Why do people settle in areas that have natural hazards? a. They have strong familial ties there. b. They like the climate. c. They are ignorant of the risks. d. They are able to earn a living there. they are able to earn a living there
How does the amount of arable land affect population distribution and density? a. Arable lands are lightly populated. b. Arable lands are too dry for agriculture. c. Arable lands are often densely populated. | https://quizlet.com/157390191/chapter-2-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1518552310#20_2692200216 | Title: CJ 335 Exam Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: CJ 335 Exam
CJ 335 Exam
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Terms in this set (45)
Content: Control of territory, use of force, suspicion, solidarity
2. Predictability, trust, optimism, openness
3. Hard work, free speech, informal social control, attention to detail
4. Anonymity, peace, obedience, uncertainty
Control of territory, use of force, suspicion, solidarity
Many police calls are routine and frustrating
1. True
2. False
True
Some, but not all, of the values that characterize police subculture are shared by all Americans
1. True
2. False
True
The civil service system was implemented to
1. Allow elected officials to influence police hiring
2. Allow police departments to pay employees different salaries for the same job. | https://quizlet.com/160288115/cj-335-exam-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1519446876#4_2693498325 | Title: Exam 2 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Exam 2
Exam 2
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Terms in this set (56)
Content: a constant-cost industry
In the long run, a purely competititve firm will only ear a ________ profit
normal
Economists maintain that new firms are attracted into an industry due to
economic profits
The quantity that a firm should produce can be determined at MR = MC or where
total revenue exceeds total cost by the maximum amount
Competition, reflected in the entry and exit of firms, eliminates economic profits and losses by adjusting the production ________ to equal the minimum long-run average _______ cost
price; total
Competitive market economies strive to generate
allocative and productive efficiency
Which of the conditions may or will cause firms to exit an industry
If price is less than minimum average total cost, resulting losses will cause firms to leave the industry; if price is less than minimum average variable cost, resulting losses will cause firms to leave the industry. a decreasing-cost industry is one in which firms experience ______________ costs as their industry ______________. lower; expands
higher; contracts
________ efficiency means that goods are produced in the least costly way
productive
__________ efficiency means that resources are distributed among firms and industries to yield a mix of products and services that is most wanted by society
allocative
what does a decreasing-cost industry experience
lower costs as industry output expands
In purely competitive markets, efficiency can be temporarily disrupted and then resorted by changes in
technological changes, consumer tastes, and resource supplies
In ________ competition, there could potentially be no dynamism and no innovation
pure
productive efficiency requires that ______
goods be produced in the least costly way
strategies attempted by firms for increasing their profits include ________
developing a new products that is popular with consumers, lowering production costs through better technology, and lowering production costs through improved business organization
New firms entering an increasing-cost industry _________ resource prices
increase
Creative _________ captures the idea that the creation of new products and new production methods erodes the market positions of firms committed to existing products and old ways of doing business
destruction
Allocative efficiency requires that
resources be apportioned among firms and industries to yield the mix of products and services that is most wanted by society
Describe producer surplus
It is the difference between the minimum price that producers are willing to accept for a product and the market price for the product
all firms in __________ industry share the same basic efficiency characteristics
a purely competitive
If the market price initially exceeds minimum average total costs, the resulting economic profits will attract new firms to the industry eventually resulting in
industry expansion that increases supply until price equals minimum average total cost (ATC)
When are society's resources allocated efficiently
when purely competitive firms produce where price is equal to marginal cost (MC)
the character of the long-run supply curve of the competitve industry can be best described as
the effect, if any, that changes in the number of firms in the industry will have on cost of the individual firms in the industry
even if resource prices and technology are the same for all firms, which are the first to leave the industry when demand declines
Firms with less productive labor forces or higher transportation costs, and less skillfully managed firms that tend to incur higher costs
lowering production costs through better technology or improved business organiation can result in firms
increasing their profits
When disrupted by changes in the economy, a purely competitive market can restore the efficiency associated with marginal revenue or ___________ = ________________ cost = lowest ATC
price, marginal
When an increase in product demand results in economic profits
industry expansion occurs and thus resource demand increases resource prices, as well as the minimum average total cost
higher resource prices will result in ________ total costs
higher average
___________ efficiency means that goods are produced in the least costly way
productive
in a perfectly competitive market, after all long-run adjustments are completed
output will occur at each firms' minimum average total cost where product price is equal to marginal revenue
consumers benefit from productive efficiency by paying the ______ product price possible under prevailing technology and cost conditions, causing firms to earn only ______ profit
lowest; a normal
In which of the following could there potentially be no dynamism or innovation
perfect competition
the entry of new firms entering an increasing-cost industry increase resource prices particularly
in industries using specialized resources whose long-run supplies do not readily increase in response to increases in resource demand
the shape of the long-run supply curve for a constant-cost industry can best be described as
flat
If price is initially less than minimum average total cost, resulting losses will cause firms to leave the industry eventually resulting in _________
industry contraction that decreases supply until price rises agian to equal minimum average total cost
the long-run goal of every perfectly competitive firm is
to operate at their minimum ATC
in the long run, perfectly competitive firms will not survive if they do not use a least-cost production method because
pure competition forces firms to produce at the minimum average total cost and to charge a price that is consistent with that cost
When efficiency is disrupted in pure competition, produces will reallocate resources until product supply is cuh that price will again _____ marginal cost
equal
when dominant positions of wagons, ship and barges was undermined by the railroad system, which in turn was undermined by truck and later airplanes. creative destruction
What is Downward-sloping
the long-run supply curve of a decreasing-cost industry
int he real world, firms do not have exactly the same _______ because skillls vary from firm to firm
cost curvers
When discussing pure competition, the term long run refers to a period of time long enough to allowe
firms already in a n industry to either expand or contract their capacities, and new firms to enter or existing firms to leave
Suppose that the pen-making industry is perfectly competitive. Also suppose that each current firm and any potential firms that might enter the industry all have identical cost curves, with minimum ATC = $1.25 per pen. | https://quizlet.com/161098898/exam-2-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1520058107#1_2694442221 | Title:
Headings:
Content: When worn, the buffalo-hide robe seen above would have transformed the warrior into a living representation of _______________________. his exploits
What tribe constructed buildings like the ones seen above? pueblo
What device is pictured above? A baby carrier
What type of intricate hand work is seen in the image above? weaving
Which of the following tribes lived in the Southwest? Navajo, Pueblo, and Anasazi
How did the Northwest Coast people develop and use animal imagery in their homes? Northwest Coast people lived in extended family groups or clans that claimed descent from a mythic animal or animal-human ancestry. The family derived its name and the right to use certain animals and spirits as emblems or crests from its mythic ancestor. What is twining? Twining is the sewing together of a vertical warp of rods. | https://quizlet.com/161626583/native-american-art-in-north-america-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1520058107#2_2694443281 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Navajo, Pueblo, and Anasazi
How did the Northwest Coast people develop and use animal imagery in their homes? Northwest Coast people lived in extended family groups or clans that claimed descent from a mythic animal or animal-human ancestry. The family derived its name and the right to use certain animals and spirits as emblems or crests from its mythic ancestor. What is twining? Twining is the sewing together of a vertical warp of rods. Summarize the Pomo legend, explaining the significance of the basket. According to Pomo legend, the earth was dark until their hero stole the sun and brought it to the earth in a basket. He hangs the basket each day, moving its position because he cannot decide which light he likes. Describe the communities of the Pueblo people and the functions of their homes. The little towns of the Pueblo consisted of multistory dwellings and areas in which people would make food or conduct trade. | https://quizlet.com/161626583/native-american-art-in-north-america-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1522095625#1_2697535754 | Title:
Headings:
Content: A pushing of the boundaries of what is accepted as the norm, through innovate methods and portrayals. Who is the artist of the image above? Diego Rivera
Why does the artist use the hibiscus flower in the image above? It's a flower that commonly grows in Cuba. What is the English name of the painting above, and why did the artist choose that name? The English name of the painting is "the one who eats", and the artist chose it as a response to one of the leaders of modern art, who claimed that Brazilians would gobble up European culture. Diego Rivera was married to ______________. Frida Kahlo
What do the strong black outlined images in the painting above represent? The stained glass windows seen in many Cuban homes. How did Mexican murals affect influence the social structure? | https://quizlet.com/163076449/modern-art-in-latin-america-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1522095625#2_2697536764 | Title:
Headings:
Content: The English name of the painting is "the one who eats", and the artist chose it as a response to one of the leaders of modern art, who claimed that Brazilians would gobble up European culture. Diego Rivera was married to ______________. Frida Kahlo
What do the strong black outlined images in the painting above represent? The stained glass windows seen in many Cuban homes. How did Mexican murals affect influence the social structure? They brought art to all social groups, for all to relate to. Why did Diego Rivera use symbolism, and what was the goal for his murals? The symbols he chose and the subject matter represent issues of the common people and his murals were a way to get messages and art to the public. What do the two Frida's in the image above represent? The Frida on the left, in the white dress, represents her European identity, and the Frida on the right, in a traditional Mexican peasant dress, represents her Mexican identity. | https://quizlet.com/163076449/modern-art-in-latin-america-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1522095625#3_2697537938 | Title:
Headings:
Content: They brought art to all social groups, for all to relate to. Why did Diego Rivera use symbolism, and what was the goal for his murals? The symbols he chose and the subject matter represent issues of the common people and his murals were a way to get messages and art to the public. What do the two Frida's in the image above represent? The Frida on the left, in the white dress, represents her European identity, and the Frida on the right, in a traditional Mexican peasant dress, represents her Mexican identity. THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
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© 2021Quizlet Inc. | https://quizlet.com/163076449/modern-art-in-latin-america-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1525200346#3_2702046321 | Title: Immigration and Urbanization - Unit Review Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Immigration and Urbanization - Unit Review
Immigration and Urbanization - Unit Review
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Reagan and the 1980s
Civil Rights at the Turn of the Century :) Quiz
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Content: immigrants
What was an effect of the growth of the service industry in the late 1800s? The number of people who worked in factories decreased. What is one way that city landscapes changed in the beginning of the twentieth century? The first skyscrapers were built. Which of these statements best describes why it was difficult for many immigrants to find employment in the US in the late 1800s? They were discriminated against by potential employers. Almost half of the "new" immigrants who came to the United States in the late 1800s
eventually returned to their home countries. During the late 1800s, the Chinese immigration rate
decreased as a result of US government legislation. Who received benefits from settlement houses in the late 1800s and early 1900s? immigrants who had recently come to America
In the 1800s, one of the most important pull factors for new immigrants was
freedom of speech. | https://quizlet.com/165179099/immigration-and-urbanization-unit-review-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1525249293#21_2702160062 | Title:
Headings:
Content: What have the older residents of San Pedro de Atacama done in response to the change? They have moved back into the countryside to set up communities in the San Pedro river valley to grow alfalfa and corn and to rear animals. How close are people now able to live to the Chuquicamata mine? 10km whereas before it was only 1.5km
How many people had to move? 25 000 and it took 8 years
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© 2021Quizlet Inc. | https://quizlet.com/16519482/atacama-desert-facts-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1525588298#4_2702709525 | Title: chapter 4 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: chapter 4
chapter 4
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Content: 2. It increases the quantity and variety of goods. 3. it lowers the costs of goods. wealth
economist define wealth as the total velue of all things a person owns. How does Specialization lead to economic interdependence? When people specialize, the resulting divisions of labor increase productivity. However those who specialize must trade to obtain what they do not make themselves. This trade gives rise to economic interdependence, as people come to depend on one another for goods and services. How do people and nations gain from specialization and trade
The principle of comparative advantage is what enables producers to gain from specialization and trade. | https://quizlet.com/16552133/chapter-4-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1526710956#1_2704444656 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Force is controlled by Ca2+ however cardiac muscle is less dependent on the release of Ca2+ from the SR and the mechanism is different (calcium induced calcium release)
3. Cardiac muscle cells depend primarily on oxidative phosphorylation to generate ATP. They are resistant to fatigue and depend on a continuous supply of oxygen
4. Cardiac muscle cells are much shorter than skeletal muscle fibers and are branched. 5. Cardiac muscle cells are joined together by intercalated discs (desmosomes and gap junctions)
Define the mechanical and functional role of the intercalated disc
Desmosomes mechanically adhere cells together
Gap junctions electrically connect cells and allow action potentials of one cell to spread to another. This allows the heart to contract as a unit. Compare and contrast the excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac and skeletal muscle
The organization of the membrane system involved in excitation-contraction coupling is similar to that in skeletal muscle. A few diffferences include sparser sarcoplasmic reticulum, t-tubules positioned near Z lines instead of A-I band junctions, t-tubules are larger in diameter, SR makes junctions with t-tubules, dyads in cardiac muscle vs triads in skeletal muscle. Explain the mechanisms of Ca2+ entry and extrusion from cardiac muscle cells
Action potential initiated by pacemaker cells propagates to the sarcolemma and spreads into the T-tubular membrane. | https://quizlet.com/16629910/cardiac-muscle-physiology-11812-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1526710956#2_2704446312 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Cardiac muscle cells are joined together by intercalated discs (desmosomes and gap junctions)
Define the mechanical and functional role of the intercalated disc
Desmosomes mechanically adhere cells together
Gap junctions electrically connect cells and allow action potentials of one cell to spread to another. This allows the heart to contract as a unit. Compare and contrast the excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac and skeletal muscle
The organization of the membrane system involved in excitation-contraction coupling is similar to that in skeletal muscle. A few diffferences include sparser sarcoplasmic reticulum, t-tubules positioned near Z lines instead of A-I band junctions, t-tubules are larger in diameter, SR makes junctions with t-tubules, dyads in cardiac muscle vs triads in skeletal muscle. Explain the mechanisms of Ca2+ entry and extrusion from cardiac muscle cells
Action potential initiated by pacemaker cells propagates to the sarcolemma and spreads into the T-tubular membrane. Voltage-dependent L-type Ca2+ channels open. This causes Ca2+ induced Ca2+ release from the SR through the ryanodine receptors. This release of Ca2+ from the SR causes cytoplasmic Ca2+ levels to rise. After contraction, Ca2+ is pumped back into the SR via Ca2+ pumps. Ca2+ is pumped back into the extracellular space by the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger
Explain why cardiac muscle cannot be tetanized
Cardiac muscle cannot produce a second action potential until its contraction is almost complete. | https://quizlet.com/16629910/cardiac-muscle-physiology-11812-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1528254112#9_2707145891 | Title: Bio 1 Content Quiz 3 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Bio 1 Content Quiz 3
Bio 1 Content Quiz 3
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Biology Two CH. 30
Chapter 33
CQ3
Gen Bio 2 CH 33
Content: Fern
Which of the following organisms is the sporopohyte stage the dominant stage in the life cycle? 1. Charophyte
2. Fern
3. Green Alga Chlamydomonas
4. Moss
5. Liverwort
3. Gametophytes have rhizomes
Which of the following statements about a typical fern cycle is false? 1. Sori contain sporangia
2. | https://quizlet.com/167906869/bio-1-content-quiz-3-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1529252335#16_2708707482 | Title:
Headings:
Content: lynching and violence; lack of opportunity; boll weevil infestation. more opportunities, including meatpacking and auto jobs; family and friends moved North; African American newspapers encouraged it
One push factor and one pull factor that drove Mexicans to cross the border and settle in the United States during World War I.
Some Mexicans moved to the United States to escape the violence of the Mexican Revolution. Others moved because of economic opportunity and farming jobs. Why European leaders skeptical about whether America would have much of a contribution to the war? Before World War I, America had a military force that was much smaller than the ones in European countries. The European leaders thought that the different ethnic groups in the United States would lead to dissent among the ranks. | https://quizlet.com/168948242/history-world-war-1-test-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1530997017#0_2711167704 | Title: us history Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: us history
us history
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Content: us history Flashcards | Quizlet
us history
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Gravity
Identify the ways in which the transportation revolution changed the economic landscape during the first half of the nineteenth century. Click card to see definition 👆
Tap card to see definition 👆
Building railroads stimulated the national economy not only by improving transportation, but also by creating a huge demand for iron, wooden crossties, bridges, locomotives, freight cars, and various kinds of equipment needed to operate railroads. Demand for materials needed to create the railroad stimulated the economy. Improvements to water transportation created a national economy. Significant improvements were made to the nation's roadways. Yet, ground transportation was not the largest industry in the United States. Americans went from producing enough to support their family's needs to growing surpluses that they could sell in more distant regional markets, now that they were able to transport the goods faster than ever. Increased mobility shifted the United States from a "household economy" to a market economy. Significant improvements were made to the nation's roadways. Yet, ground transportation was not the largest industry in the United States. | https://quizlet.com/170283920/us-history-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1531838611#6_2712441630 | Title:
Headings:
Content: * Prokaryotic cells have no nucleus, example: bacterium
* Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus where their genetic material is located and is a double strand. Example: human cells
Know the different ways bacteria reproduce
Binary fission - form of asexual reproduction. When a bacterium duplicates its genetic material and splits into two separate bacterium
Conjugation - form of sexual reproduction. When one bacterium transfers some of its genetic material into another bacterial cell through a thin threadlike bridge that joins two cells. Budding- Asexual reproduction
Give examples of diseases caused by bacteria
Food poisoning, pneumonia, strep throat, lyme disease, tetanus
Know the differences between eubacteria and archaebacteria. * Archaebacteria: live in extreme environments such as hot springs, bottom of swamps, salty waters, acid environments are often associated with foul odors. * Eubacteria: | https://quizlet.com/17098904/virus-and-bacteria-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1531838611#7_2712442754 | Title:
Headings:
Content: When one bacterium transfers some of its genetic material into another bacterial cell through a thin threadlike bridge that joins two cells. Budding- Asexual reproduction
Give examples of diseases caused by bacteria
Food poisoning, pneumonia, strep throat, lyme disease, tetanus
Know the differences between eubacteria and archaebacteria. * Archaebacteria: live in extreme environments such as hot springs, bottom of swamps, salty waters, acid environments are often associated with foul odors. * Eubacteria: do not live in extreme environments, they live every where else such as your skin in your nose and they can be useful or harmless. Be able to explain when we can see bacteria with our unaided eye and when we cannot see bacteria with our unaided eye? Bacteria grow rapidly and form colonies with hundreds of bacteria. We can see with our unaided eye when bacteria grow in colonies. However, we cannot see a single bacterium with our unaided eye, for that we must use a microscope. | https://quizlet.com/17098904/virus-and-bacteria-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1532304408#0_2713271536 | Title: Study Economics: Chapter 10 Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Economics: Chapter 10
Economics: Chapter 10
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Content: Study Economics: Chapter 10 Flashcards | Quizlet
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Economics: Chapter 10
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Gravity
Pure competition
Click card to see definition 👆
Tap card to see definition 👆
Very large number of firms
No control over price
No nonprice competition
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Pure monopoly
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One firm
Unique product
Much control over price
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Key concepts: Perfectly Competitive Firm
Average Variable Cost
Industry
Terms in this set (17)
Pure competition
Very large number of firms
No control over price
No nonprice competition
Pure monopoly
One firm
Unique product
Much control over price
Monopolistic competition
Differentiated products
Many firms
Some price control
Oligopoly
Few firms
Standardized products
Many obstacles to entry
We study pure competition because it
produces ideal results in terms of low-cost production and allocative efficiency, and can be used as a basis of comparison. Consider the statement: " Even if a firm is losing money, it may be better to stay in business in the short run." This statement is
true if the loss is less than the fixed cost. | https://quizlet.com/171540510/economics-chapter-10-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1532901826#11_2714259765 | Title: Lincoln's Presidency Chart Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Lincoln's Presidency Chart
Lincoln's Presidency Chart
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Content: Made mailing much cheaper and faster. Financing the War
North/Union: -borrow 250 million to finance the civil war by selling bonds. They sell it to the big industries such as wall street but also sell it to families of the Union to support the Union for the Civil War. -The legislation levied a 3% tax against incomes over $800, increased twice during the war. -Nation's first income tax was the Revenue Act of 1862. The annual income residents was taxed at 3%, and people who got an income of 10,000 or more was taxed a 5%. South/Confederacy: -Created paper money and put taxes on specific items. -Introduced a self-imposed embargo on cotton exports. | https://quizlet.com/172229266/lincolns-presidency-chart-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1533902055#5_2715920940 | Title:
Headings:
Content: client is satisfied with grade received in class "C", then goal has been met. Occupation Adaptation
FOR: Requires a person's ability to recognize the NEED for change, modification, or refinement (this requires a certain level of cognitive ability). -Encourages mastery and desire to be successful. -"internal adaptaion" is the catalyst to functional changes. Rehabilitation
FOR: uses adaptive equipment. -Requires from client, motivation to succeed
-emphasizes the teaching of compensatory techniques to achieve independence. -cognitive level needs to be determined to assure that your compensatory strategy can be used/applied with their level of cognition
-Limitations: financial
MOHO
FOR: | https://quizlet.com/17311551/frame-of-reference-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1533902055#6_2715921853 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Rehabilitation
FOR: uses adaptive equipment. -Requires from client, motivation to succeed
-emphasizes the teaching of compensatory techniques to achieve independence. -cognitive level needs to be determined to assure that your compensatory strategy can be used/applied with their level of cognition
-Limitations: financial
MOHO
FOR: Focusing on person and occupation, but does include environment as well. -important to identify client's volitions and habits. PEO
FOR: person, occupation, and environment work together continuously across time and space in a way that is constantly changing their balance. -Goal is to keep the 3 variables in as much balance as possible. | https://quizlet.com/17311551/frame-of-reference-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1534712748#3_2717142282 | Title: Criminology Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Criminology
Criminology
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Terms in this set (39)
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Criminology Ch. 12
Criminology Ch. 13
Criminology - Chapter 10 (Definitions)
Criminology Ch. 14
Content: State Political Crime
political crimes that are perpetrated by state authorities against the people they are supposed to serve
5 components: political corruption, illegal domestic surveillance, human rights violations, state violence, state-corporate crime
Torture
i think this one is pretty self explanatory
ticking bomb scenario
is it permissible to engage in the use of torture on a single suspect if it would save the population of a city
terrorism
the act must carry with it the intent to disrupt and change the government and must not be merely a common-law crime committed for greed or egotism. GROUPS WHO ENGAGE IN PREMEDITATED, POLITICALLY MOTIVATED VIOLENCE AGAINST NONCOMBATANT TARGETS
terror cells
most groups subdivide their affiliates into terror cells for both organizational and security purposes
Guerilla
armed military bands, typically located in rural areas, that attack military, police and government officials in an effort to destabilize the existing government
Insurgents
are organized into covert groups who engage in an organized campaign of extreme violence which may falsely appear to be random and indiscriminate, such causing the death of innocent civilians but has a distinct political agenda
GROUPS WHO ENGAGE IN ARMED UPRISING, OR REVOLT AGAINST AN ESTABLISHED CIVIL OR POLITICAL AUTHORITY
Revolutionaries
are individuals who take part in a civil war against a sovereign power that holds control of the land or over issues of ideology and power who may rely on violence or nonviolence
Zealots
Hebrew warrior groups
Reign of Terror
period of turmoil during the french revolution when the word terrorist first started being used
Retributive terrorists
they do not wish to set up their own homeland or topple a gov't but rather want to impose their social and religious code on others
Coersion Hypothesis
terrorists use violence to cause pain, notably causualits, to frighten the US and get it to bend to their will. Damange Hypothesis
Terrorists want to damage the US economy to weaken its ability to intervene in international affairs
Rally Hypothesis
Violence is sued to attract the attention of potential recruits and supporters
Franchise Hyptothesis
Jihadists use violence to pursue their own, often local, goals and only receive some support and encrouagement from international organizations such as al-Qaeda
networks
loosely organized groups located in different parts of a city, state, or country that share a common theme or purpose
Revolutionary terrorists
use violence to frighten those in power and their supporters in order to replace the existing government with a regine that holds acceptable political or religious views
Political Terrorists
Political terrorism is directed at peolpe or gorups who oppose the terrorists' political ideology or whom the terrorists define as "outsiders" who must be destroyed
Eco-Terrorism
Political terror groups inovlved in violent actions to protect the govenment
Nationalist Terrorism
Groups whose actions promote the interests of a minority ethnic or religious group that has been persecuted under majority rule and/or wishes to carve our its own independent homeland
Retributive Terrorism
Groups that use violence as a method of influence, persuasion, or intimidation in order to achieve a particular aim or objective
State-sponsored terrorism
carried out by a repressive government regine in order to force its citizens into obedience, oppress minorities and stifle prolitical dissent
Cult Terrorism
Cults whose leaders demand that followers prove their loyalty through violence or intimidation
Criminal Terrorism
Terrorist groups that become involved in common-law crimes such as drug dealing and kidnapping, even selling nuclear materials
Director of National Intelligence
was created after 9/11, and was created and charged with coordinating data from the nation's primary intelligence gather agencies
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Criminology Ch. 13
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Criminology - Chapter 10 (Definitions)
12 terms
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Criminology Ch. 14
22 terms
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msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1536002536#9_2718964361 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Pure competition
Which of the following is a factor of production for a firm? Natural resources
Which of the following is considered a command economy? Communism
In which of the following economic systems do most people work for government-owned industries or farms? Communist
_____ relates to the number of goods and services that consumers are willing to buy at different prices at a specific time. Demand
When a business fails or does not make a profit, _____ have the most to lose in terms of finances. owners
Which of the following statements describes the force that drives the distribution of resources (goods and services, labor, and money) in a free-enterprise economy? Prices for goods and services vary according to the changes in supply and demand. Which of the following statements is true about communism? It is characterized by the government owning and operating most businesses. Which of the following is true of a free market system? | https://quizlet.com/174882779/isom-final-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1538867566#0_2723156813 | Title: Executive Branch Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Executive Branch
Executive Branch
Content: Executive Branch Flashcards | Quizlet
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26 terms
Jason_Orendi
Executive Branch
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Executive Branch
The executive branch carries out and enforces laws. It includes the president, vice president, the Cabinet, executive departments, independent agencies, and other boards, commissions, and committees
Executive Order
a rule or order issued by the president to an executive branch of the government and having the force of law. Executive Privilege
the privilege, claimed by the president for the executive branch of the US government, of withholding information in the public interest. Executive Agreement
An executive agreement is an agreement between the heads of government of two or more nations that has not been ratified by the legislature as treaties are ratified. Pardon
the action of forgiving or being forgiven for an error or offense. Commander in Chief
The role of the United States president as highest ranking officer in the armed forces. War Powers Resolution
a federal law intended to check the president's power to commit the United States to an armed conflict without the consent of the U.S. Congress. Bureacracy
a system of government in which most of the important decisions are made by state officials rather than by elected representatives. Independent Agencies
Independent agencies created by Congress, designed to regulate important aspects of the nation's economy, largely beyond the reach of presidential control. Executive Agencies
Federal agencies not under the cabinet; | https://quizlet.com/177291624/executive-branch-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1539791802#0_2724598963 | Title:
Headings:
Content: Classifications and Kingdoms Flashcards | Quizlet
Start studying Classifications and Kingdoms. Learn vocabulary, terms, and more with flashcards, games, and other study tools. Search
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Classifications and Kingdoms
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Gravity
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Kellyclakin
Terms in this set (35)
kingdoms have a nucleus
Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, Protista, Chormista
kingdoms do not have a nucleus
Eubacteria, Archaebacteria
kingdoms are mobile some or all of its life
Animalia., Protista, (Eubacteria and Archaebacteria)
kingdoms are not mobile
Plantae, Fungi, Chromista, (Eubacteria, Archaebacteria)
kingdoms have cell walls
Plantae, Fungi, Chomista, Eubacteria, Archaebacteria
kingdoms do not have cell walls
Animalia, Protista,
kingdoms can photosynthesis
Plantae, Protista, Chromista, Eubacteria, Archaebacteria
kingdoms are saprophytic
Animalia, Protista, Fungi, Eubacteria, Archaebacteria
kingdoms are brown because they photosynthesis
Protista
kingdom is humans a part of
Animalia
kingdoms can cause disease
Eubacteria, Archaebacteria, Fungi, Protista
kingdom can live in extreme environments
Archaebacteria
kingdoms are all multi-cellular
Animalia, Plantae
kingdoms are single cellular
Protista, Eubacteria, Archaebacteria
kingdoms have single and multi-cellular individuals
Fungi, Chromista
kingdoms eat
Animalia, Protista
kingdoms does a woodchuck chuck
Plantae, Chuck
kingdoms produce sugar
Plantae, Protista, Chromista, Eubacteria, Archaebacteria
kingdom produces starch
Plantae
kingdoms can live in the dark
Animalia, Protista, Fungi, ( Eubacteria, Archaebacteria, the ones that do not photosynthesis)
kingdoms are eukaryotic
Animalia, Protista, Plantae, Chromista, Fungi
kingdoms are prokaryotic
Eubacteria, Archaebacteria
kingdom has four sets of chromosomes
Fungi
kingdoms have the smallest organism
Eubacteria, Archaebacteria
the oldest kingdom
Archaebacteria
kingdom was the last to be discovered
Archaebacteria
organisms can exchange DNA without reproducing
Archaebactria, Eubacteria
kingdom has organisms that produce 50% of the oxygen on Earth
Chromista
kingdoms start with a "P"
Plantae, Protista
kingdoms start with an "A"
Animalia
kingdom starts with an "F"
Fungi
kingdom starts with an "E"
Eubacteria
kingdom starts with a "C"
Chromista
kingdom is not in your book
Chromista
the order of taxonomic units from Kingdom to Species
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© 2020Quizlet Inc. | https://quizlet.com/1780629/classifications-and-kingdoms-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1541012445#3_2726476256 | Title:
Headings:
Content: maintain control of the slave trade
4. acquire an established manufacturing region
California, New Mexico, Arizona and Texas
What states did the US get when they won the Mexican War? US government gave away free or very cheap land to get people to move West. What was the Homestead Act? Native Americans were forced off their land and to walk from Georgia to Oklahoma. What was the Trail of Tears? It forced Native Americans to assimilate (adapt) with the dominant white culture. What did Dawes Act do? President Jackson forced Native Americans off their land. What was the Indian Removal Act? | https://quizlet.com/179428726/6-manifest-destiny-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1541707152#6_2727448633 | Title: Your Rights: Due Process Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Your Rights: Due Process
Your Rights: Due Process
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Terms in this set (10)
Content: b
Evidence collected during an illegal search cannot be used in court based on the ___________. exclusionary rule
How did the Supreme Court rule in the Miranda decision? Ernesto Miranda was found guilty on all counts. Ernesto Miranda had been denied his rights. Ernesto Miranda could not be tried twice for the same crime. Ernesto Miranda did not have the right to avoid self-incrimination. b
If the government wants to take land to build a highway, the Fifth Amendment says that the affected property owners must
be compensated for the land. be imprisoned if they object. defend their land rights in court. surrender the land as part of their patriotic duty. | https://quizlet.com/179951424/your-rights-due-process-flash-cards/ |
msmarco_v2.1_doc_26_1541707152#7_2727449646 | Title: Your Rights: Due Process Flashcards | Quizlet
Headings: Your Rights: Due Process
Your Rights: Due Process
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Terms in this set (10)
Content: Ernesto Miranda did not have the right to avoid self-incrimination. b
If the government wants to take land to build a highway, the Fifth Amendment says that the affected property owners must
be compensated for the land. be imprisoned if they object. defend their land rights in court. surrender the land as part of their patriotic duty. a
In New York v. Quarles (1983), the Supreme Court ruled that Miranda rights do not have to be read if a suspect
already has a criminal record. puts public safety at immediate risk. looks as if he or she has just committed a crime. is someone the arresting officer already knows. b
The exclusionary rule states that if evidence is found during an illegal search, it
must be destroyed immediately. | https://quizlet.com/179951424/your-rights-due-process-flash-cards/ |