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what was firepaws kittypet name
[ "Kittypet Edit. He was born a kittypet, named Rusty. One day, he went outside and met his friend, Smudge, who told him about the wild forest cats in the nearby forest, and how scary it was. Despite Smudge 's warning, Rusty went out into the forest anyway, and was ambushed by Graypaw, a forest cat." ]
[ "From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. For other uses, see Catnip (disambiguation) . Nepeta cataria, commonly known as catnip, catswort, or catmint, is a species of the genus Nepeta in the family Lamiaceae, native to southern and eastern Europe, the Middle East, central Asia, and parts of China.It is also widely naturalized in northern Europe, New Zealand, North America, etc.atnip contains the feline attractant nepetalactone. Nepeta cataria (and some other species within the genus Nepeta) are known for their behavioral effects on the cat family, not only on domestic cats but also other species of cats.", "For other uses, see Catnip (disambiguation). Nepeta cataria, commonly known as catnip, catswort, or catmint, is a species of the genus Nepeta in the family Lamiaceae, native to southern and eastern Europe, the Middle East, central Asia, and parts of China. It is also widely naturalized in northern Europe, New Zealand, and North America." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is the record for a marlin caught
[ "A 1,368-pound blue marlin was caught Tuesday by Guy Kitaoka off Kailua-Kona on the the big island of Hawaii. It’s believed to be the largest blue marlin caught off Kona in 23 years, and falls short of the world record–a 1,376-pound blue caught off Kona in 1982–by only eight pounds. Kitaoka was fishing with Capt. Darrell Omori aboard a 21-foot boat, Dayna, in an area where large tuna were teeming." ]
[ "A crew member of the Kallianassa from Naples, Fla., waits for the scales to open at the White Marlin Open. The boat brought in the winning fish, but the tournament has declined to pay out the $2.8 million prize, saying several crew members failed polygraphs. (Photo: Megan Raymond photo)", "This marlin is one of the fastest fish, with speeds of up to 129 km/h (80 mph) as estimated from the speed that hooked marlins are able to unwind fishing line. Black marlin are fished commercially and are also a highly prized game fish. 1 Description." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does single-dose intramuscular administration of sustained-release Angiopeptin reduce neointimal hyperplasia in a porcine coronary in-stent restenosis model?
[ "In-stent restenosis results primarily from neointimal hyperplasia. In a previous study we showed that continuous subcutaneous Angiopeptin infusion for 1 week significantly reduces neointimal hyperplasia in a porcine coronary overstretch in-stent restenosis model. The present study evaluated the relative efficacy of immediate-release and sustained-release Angiopeptin in the same model. Thirty pigs (n = 10 in each group) were randomly assigned to three groups: controls receiving no Angiopeptin (Group 1); a sustained-release treatment group receiving one time intramuscular administration of 20 mg of Angiopeptin (Group 2); and a systemic treatment group receiving continuous Angiopeptin over a 1-week period via a subcutaneous osmotic pump (200 micrograms/kg total dose) (Group 3). One oversized Palmaz-Schatz stent (mean stent/artery = 1.25) was subsequently implanted in the left anterior descending coronary artery. The degree of neointimal reaction was evaluated 4 weeks later by angiography (maximal per cent diameter stenosis) and histology (maximal neointimal area corrected for injury score)" ]
[ "Several studies have demonstrated that Sirolimus-eluting stents reduce restenosis in patients with coronary artery disease. Here, we tested whether direct delivery of Sirolimus into the vessel wall during balloon angioplasty can modify vascular remodeling over several weeks. During angioplasty of the rabbit iliac artery we administered an intramural infusion of Sirolimus or its vehicle directly through a balloon catheter into the vessel wall. After 3 weeks neointimal formation was decreased (0.71+/-0.1 vs. 1.4+/-0.12 intima/media ratio), and this process was attributed to the inhibitory properties of Sirolimus on ECM deposition and smooth muscle cell proliferation. Sirolimus also significantly reduced the deposition of elastin, collagen III and fibronectin within the vascular wall. In parallel, proteomic profiles of arterial wall segments were obtained and 485 protein spots were consistently matched between non-dilated and dilated vessels. Differential expression of 12 proteins were observed between the groups and direct sequencing of digested peptides was performed. Local delivery of sirolimus during angioplasty attenuated the expression of structural proteins that included lamin A, vimentin, alpha-1-antitrypsin, and alpha-actin", "The predictability of the whole-blood tissue factor levels for restenosis after coronary angioplasty is uncertain. We first probed in depth the association between plasma tissue factor concentrations and the development of restenosis after coronary intervention with an animal pathological model. Thirty pigs were used and their coronary arteries were injured for the dilatation of balloons. Morphological measurements include neointimal area, injury score and the extent of area stenosis. Whole-blood tissue factor levels were measured before and after intervention. The circulating tissue factor levels increased significantly after intervention (baseline value, 328.54 ± 47.46 pg/ml; at 30th minute, 618.96 ± 119.08 pg/ml; at 24th hour, 639.34 ± 116.21 pg/ml) (p < 0.01), and the degrees of tissue factor changes correlated positively to the neointimal hyperplasty (r(30th min) = 0.751, r(24th hour) = 0.72, p < 0.01). There was no significant difference with the baseline whole blood tissue factor (TF) levels between restenotic and non-restenotic cases (330.83 ± 47.32 vs. 325.1 ± 49.57 pg/ml) (p > 0.05). The injury of media led to the most distinctive changes of blood tissue factor (p < 0.01)" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
Should mitral annuloplasty be performed for patients with mild ischemic mitral regurgitation?
[ "We investigated whether mitral annuloplasty (MAP) should be performed for mild ischemic mitral regurgitation (IMR). We selected 57 patients with preoperatively mild IMR. Twenty-eight patients who previously had moderate MR or more, underwent MAP (group 1) while 29 patients with persistent mild MR, did not (group 2). We reviewed MR changes and outcomes of these patients. We also investigated other IMR patients with preoperatively moderate or more MR as reference data (group 3). In group 1, MR was none or trace in 25 patients immediately after operation, however, eleven out of these patients (44%) showed postoperative MR up-grade. The trends of MR changes in group 1 were similar to those of patients in group 3. In group 2, MR was graded mild in 79% of patients in mid-term postoperative stage although 28% of patients were up-graded or down-graded during postoperative follow-up" ]
[ "By 3 months after surgery, only 32% of patients overall had no tricuspid regurgitation. However, by 5 years, this had decreased to 22%, and 3+/4+ tricuspid regurgitation had increased from 11% at 3 months to 17%. Patients with rigid ring annuloplasty alone, either standard or 3-dimensional, had the least increase of 3+/4+ tricuspid regurgitation (to 12% at 5 years) compared with either a commissural or leaflet procedure", "Mitral regurgitation (MR) due to commissural prolapse/flail can be corrected by suturing the margins of the anterior and posterior leaflets in the commissural area (commissural closure). The long-term results of this type of repair are unknown. Our aim was to assess the clinical and echocardiographic outcomes of this technique up to 15 years after surgery. From 1997 to 2007, 125 patients (age, 56.8 ± 15.7 years; left ventricular ejection fraction, 58.1% ± 7.1%) with MR due to pure commissural prolapse/flail of 1 or both leaflets underwent commissural closure combined with annuloplasty. The etiology of the disease was degenerative in 88.8% and endocarditis in 11.2%. The commissural region involved was posteromedial in 96 patients (76.8%) and anterolateral in 29 (23.2%). Hospital mortality was 1.6%. At discharge, MR was absent or mild in 120 patients (97.5%) and moderate (2+/4+) in 3 (2.4%). Clinical and echocardiographic follow-up was 98.4% complete (mean length, 7.1 ± 3.0 years; median, 6.7; longest follow-up, 15). At 11 years, the actuarial survival, freedom from cardiac death, and freedom from reoperation was 78.8% ± 6.2%, 95.2% ± 3.3%, and 97.4% ± 1.4%, respectively. At the last echocardiographic examination, MR 3+ or greater was demonstrated in 4 patients (3.3%). Freedom from MR 3+ or greater at 11 years was 96.3% ± 1.7%. No predictors for recurrence of MR 3+ or greater were identified. The mean mitral valve area and gradient was 2.9 ± 0.4 cm(2) and 3.4 ± 1.1 mm Hg, respectively. New York Heart Association class I to II was documented in all cases" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
how does tryptase damage intestinal cells
[ "Tryptase exacerbates intestinal ischemia-reperfusion injury, however, the direct role of tryptase in intestinal mucosal injury and the underlying mechanism remains largely unknown. Protease-activated receptor 2 (PAR‑2), commonly activated by tryptase, interacts with various adaptor proteins, including ‑arrestin‑2. The present study aimed to determine whether tryptase is capable of inducing intestinal mucosal cell injury via PAR‑2 activation and to define the role of ‑arrestin‑2 in the process of injury. The IEC‑6 rat intestinal epithelial cell line was challenged by tryptase stimulation. Cell viability, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) activity and apoptosis were analyzed to determine the severity of cell injury. Injury was also evaluated following treatments with specific PAR‑2 and extracellular signal‑related kinases (ERK) inhibitors, and knockdown of ‑arrestin‑2. PAR‑2, ERK and ‑arrestin‑2 protein expression levels were evaluated. Tryptase treatment (100 and 1,000 ng/ml) resulted in IEC‑6 cell injury, as demonstrated by significant reductions in cell viability, accompanied by concomitant increases in LDH activity and levels of cleaved caspase‑3 protein expression. Furthermore, tryptase treatment led to a marked increase in PAR‑2 and phosphorylated‑ERK expression, and exposure to specific PAR‑2 and ERK inhibitors eliminated the changes induced by tryptase. Knockdown of ‑arrestin‑2 blocked tryptase‑mediated cell injury, whereas tryptase exerted no influence on ‑arrestin‑2 expression in IEC‑6 cells. These data indicate that tryptase may directly damage IEC‑6 cells via PAR-2 and the downstream activation of ERK, and demonstrate that the signaling pathway requires -arrestin-2." ]
[ "It has been shown that vanadyl trehalose could lower blood glucose but show mild toxicity to the stomach and intestine in diabetic Kunming mice. We analysed antioxidant levels, pro-inflammatory cytokine expression, apoptosis factors and intestinal microflora alteration to explore the mechanism of vanadyl trehalose toxicity in Kunming mice. The results revealed that oral administration of vanadyl trehalose at tested dose caused significant changes in oxidative stress factor (MDA levels elevated but SOD and T-AOC decreased), expression of inflammatory factor (IL-1, COX-2, TNF- and iNOS increased), and apoptosis factor (Bcl-2/Bax decreased and caspase-3 increased), and intestinal microflora dysbiosis (the number of Enterobacteriaceae and Enterococcus increased and Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium decreased) relative to the control of Kunming mice. These results suggest that the toxic mechanisms of vanadyl trehalose on the stomach and intestine likely involve activation of the oxidative stress system, increased inflammatory response, promotion of apoptosis and the disruption of the normal intestinal microflora.", "BACKGROUND: Tryptase is a serine protease released from mast cells that plays a role in tumor angiogenesis. In this study we aimed to evaluate serum tryptase levels in 105 female early breast cancer patients before (STLBS) and after (STLAS) radical surgical resection, mast cell density positive to tryptase (MCDPT) and microvascular density (MVD).METHODS: STLBS and STLAS were assessed using the UniCAP Tryptase Fluoroenzyme immunoassay. Tumor sections were immunostained with a primary anti-tryptase antibody and an anti-CD-34 antibody by means of immunohistochemistry.RESULTS: The mean  1 standard deviation STLBS and STLAS was 7.18  2.63 g/L, and 5.13  2.21 respectively and a significant difference between mean levels was found (p = 0.0001) by student t-test. A strong correlation between STLBS and MVD (r = 0.81, p = 0.0001); STLBS and MCDPT (r = 0.69, p = 0.003); and MCDPT and MVD (r = 0.77; p = 0.0001) was found.CONCLUSIONS: Results demonstrated higher STLBS in breast cancer patients, indicating an involvement of MC tryptase in breast cancer angiogenesis. Therefore, serum tryptase levels may play a role as a novel surrogate angiogenic marker predictive of response to radical surgery in breast cancer patients. In this patients setting, it's intriguing to hypothesize that tryptase inhibitors might be evaluated in clinical trials." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does medication adherence mediate the relationship between marital status and cardiac event-free survival in patients with heart failure?
[ "Cardiac event-free survival was worse in unmarried patients than in married patients. Unmarried patients were more likely to be nonadherent and 2 times more likely to experience an event than married patients (P = .017). Marital status was not a significant predictor of event-free survival after entering medication adherence in the model, demonstrating a mediation effect of adherence on the relationship of marital status to survival", "Prognosis is worse in unmarried patients compared with married patients with heart failure (HF). The reasons for differences in outcomes are unclear, but variations in medication adherence may play a role, because medication adherence is essential to achieving better outcomes. The study objective was to determine whether medication adherence mediated the relationship between marital status and cardiac event-free survival in patients with HF. Demographic, clinical, and psychosocial data were collected by questionnaires and medical record review for 136 patients with HF (aged 61 ± 11 years, 70% were male, 60% were in New York Heart Association class III/IV). Medication adherence was monitored objectively for 3 months using the Medication Event Monitoring System. Cardiac event-free survival data were obtained by patient/family interview, hospital database, and death certificate review. A series of regression and Cox survival analyses were performed to determine whether medication adherence mediated the relationship between marital status and event-free survival" ]
[ "While it is important to treat lifestyle-related diseases for the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular diseases, medication adherence is still poor. Although various causes of poor adherence have been reported, the differences between physicians and their patients regarding the recognition of medication adherence have not been well-investigated.We administered a questionnaire about medication adherence to 300 outpatients and their 23 cardiologists at the Department of Cardiology, Fukuoka University Hospital. The questionnaires for patients and physicians included acceptable total number of drug doses and dosing schedule, forgetting to take the medicine, and dose-reduction or -increase based on self-judgement. The patients were 70.6 ± 12.3 years old and 61.0% (n = 183) were male. Patients reported that it was acceptable to receive 0-5 doses twice daily. The patients were divided into two groups: an agreement group, in which physicians and their patients had the same answer to the question regarding forgetting medication (203 cases; 67.7%), and a disagreement group (97 cases; 32.3%). Overall, the inter-rater agreement between physicians and patients with regard to forgetting medication was significant, but slight (ê coefficient = 0.12). In a multivariate analysis, absence of hypertension [odds ratio (OR): 0.21, 95% confidence interval (CI): 0.09-0.50, P < .001), â-blocker usage (OR: 1.86, 95% CI: 1.11-3.12, P = .02), and biguanide usage (OR: 4.04, 95% CI: 1.43-11.41, P = .01) were independent predictors of disagreement with regard to forgetting medication.The inter-rater agreement between physicians and patients with regard to medication adherence was slight. An increase in inter-rater agreement should improve medication adherence.", "To study the effect of marital status on survival outcome in people diagnosed with glioma, not otherwise specified using the Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) database.We chose patients diagnosed with glioma between 2000 and 2014 from the SEER database and recorded their disease-related data. We then analyzed overall 5-year cause-specific survival with respect to different marital statuses. There were 617 patients (262 women and 355 men). Of these, 54.0% (n = 333), 24.6% (n = 152), 8.6% (n = 53), and 12.8% (n = 79) were married, single, divorced (or separated), and widowed, respectively. The 5-year cause-specific survival was 39.30%, 64.50%, 60.40%, and 10.10% in the married, single, divorce (or separated), and widowed groups, respectively. The widowed group had substantially higher risk of glioma-related death than did the married group (hazard ratio 1.77, 95% confidence interval 1.337-2.344, P < .001). Being widowed provided higher risk of glioma mortality compared than did marital statuses. Widowed people should be given more support and psychological intervention by society." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
gleam meaning
[ "Definition of gleam. 1 intransitive verb. 2 1 : to shine with or as if with subdued steady light or moderate brightness. 3 2 : to appear briefly or faintly a light gleamed in the distance. transitive 1 verb. : to cause to gleam." ]
[ "the state or quality of shining by reflecting light; glitter, sparkle, sheen, or gloss: the luster of satin. a substance, as a coating or polish, used to impart sheen or gloss. radiant or luminous brightness; brilliance; radiance.", "Rob: No, none of them. The effect or realization of the beauty in ones eyes. The sparkle is more than just a light reflecting in the saline of the pupal: it is the reflection of one's soul in a form that, like ones soul, is beautiful, shimmering, and often hard to see. It is said that if you can see the sparkle in the eyes of the person you are about to kiss, they are the one for you!" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
are asics and onitsuka tiger the same?
[ " ASICS Ltd. began as Onitsuka Co., Ltd on September 1, 1949. ... In 1977, Onitsuka Tiger merged with GTO and JELENK to form ASICS Corporation. Despite the name change, a vintage range of ASICS shoes are still produced and sold internationally under the Onitsuka Tiger label." ]
[ " Asics GEL-Nimbus 22 Running Shoe The exoskeletal heel counter in this shoe from Asics (Dr. Brenner recommends the brand) provides support, while additional height relieves Achilles' heel tension. It's also shock-absorbent and allows for movement in multiple planes as the foot goes through the gait cycle.", " Another solid, high-quality product from ASICS, their women's GEL Kayano running shoe gives runners with plantar fasciitis the excellent support and comfort they need. They feature ASICS' popular GEL cushioning, which helps with shock absorption and provides superior comfort, especially in the forefoot and rearfoot." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant passages that answer the question
gooaq
The enclosure? Mr. Carter smiled dryly.
[ "Ms Carter smiled." ]
[ "Ms Carter didn't smile at all." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
zionna name meaning
[ "4 5. The meaning of Zionna is Name of the Jerusalem city center . Its origin is Variant of the Hebrew name Zion . Zionna is a form of Zion and is generally pronounced like zye AH nah and zee AH nah .This name is mostly being used as a girls name. Last year it ranked 4,117th in the U.S. Social Security Administration list of most popular baby girl names. 5. The meaning of Zionna is Name of the Jerusalem city center . Its origin is Variant of the Hebrew name Zion . Zionna is a form of Zion and is generally pronounced like zye AH nah and zee AH nah ." ]
[ "To remember Zion, then, is to remember Jerusalem and all the promises God made concerning her. Jerusalem and her memory became for the Jews a symbol of God’s literal promises to the literal bloodline of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.", "So most of the time (in its 150+ uses in the Old Testament) Zion refers to the city of Jerusalem, not just as another name, but because it is the city of God's presence and the city of great hope for God's people." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does addition of AT1 blocker fail to overcome resistance to ACE inhibition in adriamycin nephrosis?
[ "Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors provide renoprotection, but there is considerable interindividual variability in therapeutic efficacy, with residual proteinuria and progressive renal function loss in many individuals. This requires additional strategies to optimize therapy response, particularly for individuals with a poor response to ACE inhibition. We studied whether co-treatment with an angiotensin II subtype 1 (AT1) receptor antagonist (AII-A) improves the individual antiproteinuric response of maximal ACE inhibition in established adriamycin nephrosis. Rats were instituted on lisinopril (75 mg/L) six weeks after disease induction. After two weeks rats were re-stratified for residual proteinuria to continue this regimen, to a higher dose of lisinopril (150 mg/L) or to co-treatment with the AII-A L 158,809 for another four weeks. Groups on monotherapy AII-A and vehicle served as controls (all groups N=15). Lisinopril lowered proteinuria by 63% from 741 to 246 g/day (range of percentage change -90 to +2%). Neither increasing the dose of the ACE inhibitor nor addition of AII-A to ACE inhibition improved the antiproteinuric efficacy on a group or individual level: non-responders remained non-responders. All drug categories reduced hard end-points of focal glomerulosclerosis to a similar degree" ]
[ "Hydronephrosis is characterized by substantial loss of tubules and affects renin secretion in the kidney. However, whether alterations of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), ACE2 and Mas receptor in the heart are observed in hydronephrosis is unknown. Thus, we assessed these components in hydronephrotic mice treated with AT1 receptor blockade and ACE inhibitor. Hydronephrosis was induced by left ureteral ligation in Balb/C mice except sham-operated animals. The levels of cardiac ACE, ACE2 and Mas receptor were measured after treatment of losartan or enalapril. Hydronephrosis led to an increase of ACE level and a decrease of ACE2 and Mas receptor in the heart. Losartan decreased cardiac ACE level, but ACE2 and Mas receptor levels significantly increased in hydronephrotic mice (p < 0.01). Enalapril increased ACE2 levels (p < 0.01), but did not affect Mas receptor in the heart. Plasma renin activity (PRA) and Ang II decreased in hydronephrotic mice, but significantly increased after treatment with losartan or enalapril", "Increased levels of monocytic angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) found in haemodialysis (HD) patients may directly participate in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis. We demonstrated recently that uremia triggers the development of highly pro-atherogenic monocytes via an angiotensin II (AngII)-dependent mechanism. Opposing actions of the AngII-degrading ACE2 remain largely unknown. We examined the status of both ACEs and related receptors in circulating leukocytes of HD, not-dialyzed CKD and healthy individuals. Furthermore, we tested the possible impact of monocytic ACEs on atherogenesis and behaviour of the cells under conditions mimicking chronic renal failure. Expression of ACE, ACE2, AT1R, AT2R and MASR was investigated on circulating leukocytes from 71 HD (62 ± 14 years), 24 CKD stage 3-5 (74 ± 10 years) patients and 37 healthy control subjects (53 ± 6 years) and isolated healthy monocytes treated with normal and uremic serum. Analyses of ACE, ACE2, ICAM-1, VCAM-1, MCSF and endothelial adhesion were tested on ACE-overexpressing THP-1 monocytes treated with captopril or losartan. ACE2-overexpressing monocytes were subjected to transmigration and adhesion assays and investigated for MCP-1, ICAM-1, VCAM-1, MCSF, AT1R and AT2R expression" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is the overlap of psychosocial construct in cancer survivors
[ "PURPOSE: Positive mental health involves theoretical constructs like psychological well-being, personal meaning, and posttraumatic growth. This study aims to provide empirical insight into possible overlap between these constructs in cancer survivors.METHODS: Within the context of a randomized controlled trial, 170 cancer survivors completed the patient-reported outcome measures (PROMs) Ryff's Scales of Psychological Well-Being (SPWB), Personal Meaning Profile (PMP), and Posttraumatic Growth Inventory (PTGI). Exploratory factor analysis (EFA) on the subscales of these PROMs, as well as structural equation modeling (SEM), was used to explore overlap in these three constructs.RESULTS: The EFA resulted in a three-factor solution with an insufficient model fit. SEM led to a model with a high estimated correlation (0.87) between SPWB and PMP and lower estimated correlations with PTGI (respectively 0.38 and 0.47). Furthermore, the estimated correlation between the subscales relation with God (PMP) and spiritual change (PTGI) was high (0.92). This model had adequate fit indices (2(93) = 144, p = .001, RMSEA = 0.059, CFI = 0.965, TLI = 0.955, SRMR = 0.061).CONCLUSIONS: The constructs psychological well-being and personal meaning overlap to a large extent in cancer survivors. Posttraumatic growth can be seen as a separate construct, as well as religiosity. These findings facilitate researchers to select the appropriate PROM(s) when testing the effect of a psychosocial intervention on positive mental health in cancer survivors.RELEVANCE: An increasing number of psychosocial intervention trials for cancer survivors use positive mental health outcomes. These constructs are often multifaceted and overlapping. Knowledge of this overlap is important in designing trials, in order to avoid the pitfalls of multiple testing and finding artificially strengthened associations.NETHERLANDS TRIAL REGISTER: NTR3571." ]
[ "PURPOSE: The psychosocial impact of breast cancer varies widely across patients and over time. Greater insight into goal-based coping processes theorised to underpin psychological resilience may inform efforts to support the maintenance and recovery of psychological wellbeing in the context of breast cancer treatment and recovery. This prospective study adopted a qualitative descriptive design to better understand the nature of situational goal-based coping in response to personal goal interference encountered across the six months following surgery for early-stage breast cancer.METHOD: Responses to specific instances of goal interference were derived from semi-structured interviews conducted at three time-points following surgery (i.e., approximately two, four, and six months post-surgery). Thematic and cross-case analytic techniques were utilised to identify broad patterns across the goal-specific response trajectories.RESULTS: Three broad response patterns were identified - goal-based coping only, combined goal-based coping and other (i.e., informed waiting and/or passive) responses, and informed waiting and/or passive responses only. Specific response patterns were further identified within each category. The majority of response trajectories incorporated the utilisation of assimilative and/or accommodative goal-based coping.CONCLUSIONS: Early-stage breast cancer patients utilised goal-based coping in response to many instances of goal-specific interference encountered during the study period. While the initial or delayed activation of these processes appeared generally adaptive, there was also evidence of maladaptive coping and blocked goal pursuit. Further insight into the nature of adaptive and maladaptive goal-based coping in this context could help oncology nurses facilitate ongoing personal goal pursuit and psychological resilience across the cancer continuum.", "BACKGROUND: Although older cancer survivors commonly report psychosocial problems, the impact of both cancer and ageing on the occurrence of these problems remains largely unknown. The evolution of depression, cognitive functioning, and fatigue was evaluated in a group of older cancer patients in comparison with a group of younger cancer patients and older persons without cancer.METHODS: Older (?70 years) and younger cancer patients (50-69 years) with breast or colorectal cancer stage I-III, and older persons without cancer (?70 years) were included. Data were collected at baseline and one year follow-up and were available for 536 persons. Depression was evaluated with the 15-item Geriatric Depression Scale. Cognitive functioning was measured with the cognitive functioning subscale of the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer. Fatigue was measured with a Visual Analogue Scale. Risk factors for depression, cognitive functioning, and fatigue were analysed using multivariate logistic regression analyses. Risk factors included cancer- and ageing-related factors such as functional status, cancer treatment, and comorbidities.RESULTS: The evolution of psychosocial problems was similar for the group of older (N = 125) and younger cancer patients (N = 196): an increase in depression (p < 0.01), slight worsening in cognitive functioning (p = 0.01), and no clear change in fatigue. Also, compared to the group of people without cancer (N = 215), the differences were small and after one year of follow-up only depression was more frequent in older cancer patients compared to older persons without cancer (18% versus 9%, p = 0.04). In multivariate analyses the main risk factors for psychosocial problems after one year follow-up were changes in functional status and presence of baseline depression, fatigue, or cognitive impairment.CONCLUSION: Over the course of one year after a diagnosis of cancer, cancer patients face increasing levels of depression and increasing difficulties in cognitive functioning. The main risk factor for psychosocial problems was presence of the problem at baseline. This calls for regular screening for psychosocial problems and exchange of information on psychosocial functioning between different health care providers and settings during the treatment and follow-up trajectory of cancer patients." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
How do lymph capillaries collect the lymph?
[ " They are the lowest pressure in the system. They have no elasticity like arteries. Muscle movement raises the pressure outside them temporarily. So they fill.From there they journey and collect. It is not an active process. \n\nIf an IV infiltrates the skin turgor increases. Slowly this will drain away through the lymph channels. There are no little pumps working away. It is a drainage system." ]
[ " Your heart pumps blood away from itself in arteries, these branch out into narrower arterioles, and these branch out into narrower still capillaries, which exchange material with the cells of your body. The capillaries then join back up into wider venules, which join up into veins, returning the blood to start the cycle over.\n\nBasically, veins and arteries are simply the largest branches of a huge network.", " Cold causes the capillaries in the nose to shrink, squeezing lymph and other fluids out into the nasal cavity and sinuses." ]
Given a question, retrieve the highest voted answers on Reddit forum
eli5
when did the mac book pro come out
[ "MacBook Pro The MacBook Pro (sometimes abbreviated as MBP) is a line of Macintosh portable computers introduced in January 2006 by Apple Inc. It is the high-end model of the MacBook family and is currently available in 13- and 15-inch screen sizes. A 17-inch version was available between April 2006 and June 2012. The first generation MacBook Pro is externally similar to the PowerBook G4 it replaces, but uses Intel Core processors instead of PowerPC G4 chips. The 15-inch model was introduced first, in January 2006; the 17-inch model followed in April. Both received several updates and Core 2 Duo" ]
[ "a solid state drive housed in a proprietary flash module design rather than a 2.5\"\" notebook drive. Apple also claims improved speakers and microphones and a new system for cooling the notebook with improved fans. The new case design does not have a Kensington lock slot, so alternative products are required to physically secure the computer. The Retina models also have fewer user-accessible upgrade or replacement options than previous MacBooks. Unlike in previous generations, the memory is soldered onto the logic board and is therefore not upgradable. The solid state drive is not soldered and can be replaced by users,", "was announced as an option for the 15-inch models. The 13-inch gained an integrated Nvidia GeForce 320M graphics processing unit (GPU) with 256 MB of shared memory, while the 15- and 17-inch models were upgraded to the GeForce GT 330M, with either 256 or 512 MB of dedicated memory. The 15- and 17-inch models also have an integrated Intel GPU that is built into the Core i5 and i7 processors. The 15-inch model also gained . Save for a third USB 2.0 slot, all the ports on the 17-inch MacBook Pro are the same in type and number as on" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
length & width of average mobile home
[ "\"Single Wide Mobile Homes What makes them \"\"single\"\"\" \"Home : FAQs and General Info : Single Wide Mobile Homes Single Wide Mobile Homes What makes them \"\"single\"\"Single Wide Mobile Homes are very common and an inexpensive option for a lot of people. The best thing about them is their low cost, but they are also plenty big. The \"\"single\"\" refers to a single section of the home. These homes are built almost completely in the factory and transported as a complete unit. They are built on a single trailer chassis. Very little assembly is required and final set up is very quick. Most new single wide Mobile or Manufactured Homes are two bedrooms and two baths, so for a single person or a couple, this is ususally the best option. A typical single wide Mobile Home Older single wide These types of Mobile Homes usually are 10 feet to 16 feet wide. Some have what is called a push out, this is a section that slides out or is added on after installation. This will increase the size of the living area. A single wide with an addition Older single wide with an addition When an addition or a push out is used, the over all living area becomes much larger. These types of Mobile Homes can range in quality, age, and size much of the time. Some single wides have only one bedroom and one bathroom. Also, financing can be a little more tricky with a single wide home. Size and dimensions A normal dimension for a single wide mobile home is as follows:12 feet, 14 feet, and 16 feet wide42 feet to 60 feet long So the typical area inside is 540 sqft to 960 sqft. This is with out any push outs or additions, and does not include any awings, porches, stairs, decks, sheds, etc. By Will Cunningham A log cabin park model home Another version of the log cabin look A park model ready to go Additional Manufactured Home Info Here are some related topics, click on the underlined words for more information. Double Wide Mobile Homes Small Mobile Homes Park Model Mobile Homes Mobile Home Interior Cavco Mobile Homes info Champion Mobile Home info Clayton Mobile Home info Fleetwood Mobile Home info Golden West Mobile Home info Norris Mobile Home info Oakwood Mobile Home info Redman Mobile Home info Return from Single Wide Mobile Homes to the Home Page Share or save this page: \"" ]
[ "Triple Wide Mobile Homes Prices Home Modular Home Financing Triple Wide Mobile Homes Pricesx Close Triple Wide Mobile Homes Prices Three-wide mobile homes Prices on a mobile home saletriple widely sold in texasclayton three kinds of mobile homestriple wide mobile home prices. This upgrade offers a large selection of home such as a media room with surround sound, built on the porch, spacious master suite, and a large kitchen island. Our multi-width models are the highest luxury modular homes on the market. Select area three or four times-wides from 2.400 to 3.300 sq. Ft, with the option to upgrade as media room with surround sound, built-in porches, master suite, and a kitchen island. They are top-tier, massively built comfort. The house gives Central and South Texas with prefabricated houses, customized for your specific needs. We have several modular floor plans and designs to choose from, with each built to local building codes to ensure the highest quality are produced. All our units are made directly in our own factories, with our colleagues who are involved in every step of the development process to ensure that our greatest priority are satisfied. The house offers a range of mobile homes for sale with floor plans and sizes to meet the needs of all customers, including the design of single-wide, double-wide and triple-wide. The main entrance to the house is three kinds of manufactured has a large entry foyer. Triple Wide Mobile Homes Floor Plans Offers a variety of new home floor plans from industry leading manufacturers. From Single wides, Double wides, Triple wides, Modular and even our new model series Parks your curtain to find what you are looking for. Our sites do not offer price in our model because many variables when building a dream home. To obtain a price quote today in any model just requesting more information online or contact us directly. Triplewides 3 home sections ranging from 1600 sqft to 3100 sqft. If you’re looking for something big like Texas you’ve found it. While embracing the standard of workmanship we are able to offer the largest manufactured home at the best prices in the market. This is a must see home! Whether you are a first home buyer looking for a single-wide mobile home or you want to build your dream home on your farm 4,000 sqft, we’ve got you covered. With over 300 manufactured and modular home floor plans to choose from and the option to go completely customizable, we have what you need plus, a great team of people to help you see through. Take a look at our various floor plans and contact us to find out what is the next step in finding your new home. Have built three houses extensive quality produced for 50 years. We offer a wide range of spacious three floor plans that you can choose from, or you may want to design your own three wide plan. Triple Wide Mobile Homes For Sale The price of each of our three wide mobile home offered for, go to the Find A Fitness Model then locate your desired area. One community or the retail center will be able to help you with the purchase of wide-produced three of your home. This means you have peace of mind for a custom experience throughout your home buying. With a wide range of San Antonio house car, manufactured homes and modular homes, and our ability to adjust, we are sure to have your dream home. Mobile or manufactured home is built in a factory and transported to a location that they occupy. Overall size is limited by what can be pulled by a tractor-trailer on a public highway. Mobile / manufactured home the maximum width is 18 feet wide and 90 feet long. Double-wides at least 20 feet wide and up to 90 feet long, and drawn in two separate units joined together on site. There is a triple-wide home and with four or more units. Special frames can be ordered for the building, a house, so the house can be placed, in the basement or crawlspace. If the manufactured home is placed on a crawlspace or basement, the house is still home produced; it does NOT become a modular home. Triple Wide Mobile Homes Texas A manufactured home is built almost entirely, in the factory, with the federal performance standards (HUD). The house was built, the integrated steel chassis and transported to the construction site. The wheels can be removed but the frame remains in place. A manufactured home can come in many different sizes and shapes. Two major forms of manufactured home is a single-wides and sectionals. Single-wides sixteen feet or less in width and can be transported to their site as a single unit. Many types of skirting are available, from vinyl, metal, concrete, or other type of material approved. Sectionals are usually twenty feet or more wide, and moved to their site in a separate unit, which then joined together. Satterwhite Log Homes Prices 2017 | Mobile Home Manufacturers and Prices Although not as common as the last, home made can also be produced as a triple-wide. Most manufactured homes placed on the poured concrete foundation that were drilled into the ground, to frost level. Many others were placed on engineering, pouring concrete, Triple Wide Mobile Homes Prices with anchoring points.14 Photos of the Triple Wide Mobile Homes Prices April 28, 2015 ≈ Modular Home Financing ≈ Comments Off on Triple Wide Mobile Homes Prices ≈" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant documents that answer the query
msmarco_doc
Separating citric acid from sugar I'm trying to get as pure citric acid as possible from a mandarin. It's not because I desperately need citric acid, but because I want to achieve this. I started by grating the mandarine and filtering the juice. After filtering overnight, I was left with slightly yellow liquid. I heated it while avoiding boiling and I reduced the volume to 50%. When volume was reduced, the solution started to become saturated and crystals appeared. At this point, I stopped. Now, I'm looking for a way to remove sugar from the solution, as this is the most annoying part. It's sticky. When crystals appeared while I was boiling the solution, I came to think, that perhaps that could allow to separate sugar. Citric acid has solubility in water 1477.6 g/L (20 °C), while sugar has 2000 g/L (25 °C). Wikipedia unfortunately doesn't provide values for the same temperature. From the above it seems that I can have more sugar dissolved than citric acid. I think that means that citric acid will crystallise first. Does it work like this? Are the crystals I've produced the citric acid crystals? Is there another way to separate the compounds? Does something react with sugar to produce precipitate that can be filtered?
[ "Citric acid is relatively soluble in ethanol (62g/100g) whereas sucrose is relatively insoluble in ethanol (1g/170ml). There are many different kinds of sugars and sucrose is probably not the primary one in this extract; branched sugars... oligosaccharides (which have generally higher solubilities than sucrose) are likely, and I'm sure there are a few other organic acids involved with a crude, fruit extract, but the different solubility characteristics should be relatively helpful for extracting citric acid from sugars and some other organic acids. \n\nSo, I would try extracting the citric acid from the dried fruit or dried water extraction with 99%+ ethanol. I would then allow the alcohol to evaporate to help concentrate the acid.\n\nDilute citric acid (from a concentrated extract) can be precipitated with calcium hydroxide as practically insoluble calcium citrate, which is then reacted with sulfuric acid to form (food grade) citric acid and calcium sulfate (gypsum) as a recoverable by-product.\n\nTo really purify the stuff, an ion exchange resin or some other chromatographic method would be the last step." ]
[ "I wouldn't bother trying to purify it. As Mithoron said in his legendary comment \"Caramel made your product a black unholy abomination of science\". I would have distilled the vinegar and diluted it (because concentrated acetic acid is a bit dangerous if you don't know what you're doing) and start again. If you want pure product, make sure your starting materials aren't filled with \"unholy abomination of science\" causing impurities. If you really want to purify it, maybe recrystallise it in hot water? Or a solvent that sodium acetate can become saturated in.", "Benedict's reagent detects reducing sugars (free aldehyde group) by reducing soluble blue Cu(II) to insoluble red Cu(I) oxide. Sucrose aquoous solution is inert unless it is pre-hydrolyzed by heating with strong acid catalyst.\n\nThat certainly is a poser. One possibility (SWAG, not fact) is regenerated crosslinked cellulose is overall not permeable to neutral solutes. Its size selection is active toward dissociated solutes and proteins that are charged. One can test this with anti-freeze. The sodium fluorescene color should freely diffuse. Tiny molecule ethylene glycol (EG) should be retained.\n\nhttps://www.chemetrics.com/Glycol \n Test kit and how it works: Iodate cleavage of 1,2-diol to aldehyde, then aldehyde detection with Purpald. \n\n\n\nOne could iodate cleave permeated EG (or propylene glycol, glycerin, etc.) then use Benedict's solution. Serial dilution of standard EG solution for control and calibration. One expects any dialysis membrane to leak somewhat. Major passage of uncharged 1,2-dihydroxylic solutes smaller and larger than than sucrose is the SWAG's falsifying observation.\n\nhttp://chemsee-foods.com/antifreeze-detection \nhttp://www.chemworld.com/Ethylene-Glycol-Test-Kit-p/k-4815.htm \nhttp://www.hach.com/glycol-visual-test-kit-model-eg-1/product?id=7640218461 \n EG in food and fluids tests. \nhttp://www.astm.org/Standards/E202.htm \n Testing standards" ]
Given a medical question from the stackexchange, retrieve replies that best answer the question
exchange
how to transfer photos from dropbox to google photos on ipad?
[ " Install the google photos uploader. Open the google photos uploader sync folder and drag your dropbox images into this folder. This is how you transfer pictures from dropbox to google photos." ]
[ " ['Open Dropbox on your phone.', \"Open the Dropbox folder where you'd like to store your photos.\", 'Tap the + (plus) icon at the bottom of your screen.', 'Choose Upload Photos.', 'Tap the photos you would like to upload.', \"Tap the folder icon (Android) or Next (iOS), and select where you'd like the files to be added.\"]", " ['In your Dropbox app, you may browse to where your photos are. ... ', 'Next, you will need to long press on a photo to select one.', 'You may then tap subsequent photos, or select all using the \"double ticks\" icon.', 'Once done, you may press 3 dots icon, and then tap \"Save to Device\"']" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant passages that answer the question
gooaq
intravitreal aflibercept injection pain level
[ "PURPOSE: To evaluate the pain associated with intravitreal aflibercept injections.METHODS: The study included 119 patients who received intravitreal aflibercept injection at a single institution. Pain was evaluated by visual analog scale (VAS) immediately after the injection of 2 mg/0.05 mL aflibercept into the vitreous cavity using a 27-G needle. Additional variables including age, sex, indication for the injection, injection site by quadrant (superotemporal or inferotemporal), position during injection (sitting or supine), number of previous intravitreal injections in the study eye, presence of diabetes mellitus or hypertension, and lens status (phakic or pseudophakic) were recorded and assessed with self-reported pain scores.RESULTS: Pain scores on the VAS ranged from 9 to 70, with a median of 18. Indications for injection included diabetic macular edema (21.0%), macular edema secondary to central retinal vein occlusion (12.6%), and neovascular age-related macular degeneration (66.38%). Pain did not significantly correlate with any of the recorded variables.CONCLUSIONS: This is the first series evaluating the pain associated with intravitreal aflibercept injections. We demonstrated that pain associated with intravitreal aflibercept injection is generally mild with low pain scores." ]
[ "OBJECTIVE: To assess the efficacy and safety of intravitreal aflibercept injection in the treatment of CNV secondary to presumed ocular histoplasmosis syndrome (POHS).PURPOSE: To assess safety of intravitreal aflibercept for the treatment of CNV secondary to presumed ocular histoplasmosis syndrome.METHODS: Masked, open-label, prospective study. Five subjects will receive 2.0 mg aflibercept injection every 8 weeks with 3 initial monthly doses over a 12 month period.RESULTS: No adverse systemic or ocular were reported. At month six, the mean visual acuity improved by 7.8 ETDRS letters, mean central subfoveal thickness decreased by 38.8 microns and mean OCT volume decreased by 0.076 mm3 . At month twelve, the mean visual acuity improved by 12.4 ETDRS letters, mean central subfoveal thickness decreased by 34.6 microns and mean OCT volume decreased by 0.576 mm3.CONCLUSION: The use of intravitreal 2.0 mg aflibercept injection for the treatment of CNV secondary to presumed ocular histoplasmosis syndrome yielded no systemic or ocular adverse events and produced improvement in visual acuity and reduction of OCT thickness and volume.", "BACKGROUND: To investigate the short-term outcomes of treatment with intravitreal aflibercept in cases with wet age-related macular degeneration (AMD) resistant to ranibizumab.METHODS: The study included patients who had been undergoing follow-up for a minimum of three months at the Ankara University Faculty of Medicine Ophthalmology Department's Retina Unit with a diagnosis of wet AMD. All cases had received intravitreal aflibercept injection due to the presence of intraretinal/subretinal fluid and pigment epithelial detachment (PED), as detected by optical coherence tomography (OCT), despite having received intravitreal ranibizumab. Medical records of the cases were investigated retrospectively and the demographic data, treatments administered before aflibercept injection, best-corrected visual acuity (BCVA) before and after aflibercept injection, central macular thickness (CMT), and the presence of intraretinal/subretinal fluid and the height and presence of PED were recorded.RESULTS: A total of 29 eyes from 11 females and 17 males were included in the study. The mean age was 73.89 7.49 (62-92). The average number of intraocular injections administered before aflibercept injection was 11.75 5.73 (6-25). The mean duration of follow-up following aflibercept injection was 4.55 2.14 (3-11) months, with a mean of 3.44 0.73 (3-5) aflibercept injections during this period. The mean BCVA values before and after aflibercept injection were found to be 0.83 and 0.77 LogMAR, respectively. The mean CMT values before and after aflibercept injection were 471.3 (97-1365) and 345.1 (97-585) microns, respectively (p < 0.001). The PED height before and after aflibercept injection was 350.4 151.7 (129-793) and 255.52 156.8 (0-528) microns, respectively (p < 0.05).CONCLUSION: Switching to intravitreal aflibercept appears to be an effective treatment modality for patients with AMD who are resistant to ranibizumab. While anatomic success including the effect of reducing the PED height was achieved in the short term following aflibercept injection in all cases, no concomitant increase in visual acuity occurred. This is attributed to the long-term presence of chronic fluid and the development of scar tissue before the treatment." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
marble cost per square metre
[ "Marble is considered to be the top of the range benchtop material, and as a consequence it's also the most expensive. Chinese or Indian marble will set you back approximately $70 per square metre, while the top of the line Italian marble can cost up to $200 per square metre.Locally mined marble is also available.hinese or Indian marble will set you back approximately $70 per square metre, while the top of the line Italian marble can cost up to $200 per square metre. Locally mined marble is also available." ]
[ "Unlike tiles, carpeting and other flooring materials, polished concrete floors are created on site. For this reason, you can't simply choose a colour or design you like and get a square metre quote. Estimates will vary, but generally expect to pay from around $50 to $75 per square metre.or this reason, you can't simply choose a colour or design you like and get a square metre quote. Estimates will vary, but generally expect to pay from around $50 to $75 per square metre.", "Unlike tiles, carpeting and other flooring materials, polished concrete floors are created on site. For this reason, you can't simply choose a colour or design you like and get a square metre quote.Estimates will vary, but generally expect to pay from around $50 to $75 per square metre.nlike tiles, carpeting and other flooring materials, polished concrete floors are created on site. For this reason, you can't simply choose a colour or design you like and get a square metre quote." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
do welders have nuclear abnormalities
[ "BACKGROUND: An estimated 800,000 people worldwide are occupationally exposed to welding-fumes. Previous studies show that the exposure to such fumes is associated with damage to genetic material and increased cancer risk. In this study, we evaluate the genotoxic effect of welding-fumes using the Micronucleus Test on oral mucosa cells of Mexican welders.MATERIAL AND METHODS: We conducted a cross-sectional, matched case-control study of n = 66 (33 exposed welders, and 33 healthy controls). Buccal mucosa smears were collected and stained with acridine orange, observed under 100x optical amplification with a fluorescence lamp, and a single-blinded observer counted the number of micronuclei and other nuclear abnormalities per 2,000 observed cells. We compared the frequencies of micronuclei and other nuclear abnormalities, and fitted generalised linear models to investigate the interactions between nuclear abnormalities and the exposure to welding-fumes, while controlling for smoking and age.RESULTS: Binucleated cells and condensed-chromatin cells showed statistically significant differences between cases and controls. The frequency of micronuclei and the rest of nuclear abnormalities (lobed-nuclei, pyknosis, karyolysis, and karyorrhexis) did not differ significantly between the groups. After adjusting for smoking, the regression results showed that the occurrence of binucleated cells could be predicted by the exposure to welding-fumes plus the presence of tobacco consumption; for the condensed-chromatin cells, our model showed that the exposure to welding-fumes is the only reliable predictor.CONCLUSIONS: Our findings suggest that Mexican welders who are occupationally exposed to welding-fumes have increased counts of binucleated and condensed-chromatin cells. Nevertheless, the frequencies of micronuclei and the rest of nuclear abnormalities did not differ between cases and controls. Further studies should shed more light on this subject." ]
[ "Objective: To investigate the prevalence of work-related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSDs) in male welders in different work areas of shipbuilding industry based on their operational working position and body position characteristics and to analyze the operational positions and ergonomic loads. Methods: In February 2017, 412 male welders from the hull and block work areas of a large ship factory were selected by stratified sampling. The prevalence and effects of WMSDs within a year were investigated using the Nordic Musculoskeletal Disorders Questionnaire, and a rapid exposure checklist was used to obtain the ergonomic load index by comprehensive scoring; the exposure-response relationship between the ergonomic loads and WMSDs symptoms of subjects in the hull and block work areas was evaluated. Results: Among the male welders working in the hull work area of shipbuilding industry, WMSDs occurred more commonly in the neck, lower back/waist, and legs, accounting for 53.16% (126/237) , 51.90% (123/237) , and 41.77% (99/237) , respectively; among those working in the block work area, WMSDs occurred more commonly in the lower back/waist, wrist, and legs, accounting for 52.57% (92/175) , 49.14% (86/175) , and 45.14% (79/175) , respectively. There were significant differences in the distribution of cases of pain within the last 7 days and one month, pain lasting more than one month, or absence from work due to pain within a year in the four positions between the two work areas (P<0.05). In the hull work area, high and extremely high exposure levels were mainly seen in the neck, lower back/waist, and legs, accounting for 76.79%(182/237), 69.20%(164/237), and 59.49%(141/237), respectively; in the block work area, high and extremely high exposure levels were mainly seen in the lower back/waist, wrist, and legs, accounting for 77.71%(136/175), 50.29% (88/175), and 46.29% (81/175), respectively. The detection rates of WMSDs in these four positions significantly increased as the exposure levels rose (P<0.01). Conclusion: The WMSDs of male welders working in the hull and block work areas of shipbuilding industry occurs more commonly in the lower back/waist and legs. The risk of WMSDs symptoms increases with the rise of ergonomic load.", "The welding is the major working process in fitness equipment manufacturing industry, and International Agency for Research on Cancer has classified welding fumes as possibly carcinogenic to humans (Group 2B). The present study aimed to evaluate associations between the occupational exposure of metals and oxidative damage and telomere length shortening in workers involved in the manufacture of fitness equipment. The blood metal concentrations were monitored and malondialdehyde (MDA), alkaline Comet assay was determined as oxidative damage in 117 workers from two representative fitness equipment manufacturing plants. MDA levels varied according to workers' roles at the manufacturing plants, and showed a trend as cutting>painting>welding>administration workers. Welders had marginally shorter average telomere lengths than the administrative workers (p=0.058). Cr and Mn levels were significantly greater in welders than they were in administrative workers. There were significantly positive correlations between MDA and Cr and Mn levels, the major components of welding fume. However, the association would be eliminated if co-metals exposure were considered simultaneously. In future, telomere length and MDA might be potential biomarkers for predicting cardiovascular disease in co-metals exposed workers." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
What are the potential advantages and disadvantages of using telemedicine for healthcare provision in rural areas?
[ "Telemedicine has been hailed as a game changer, particularly for rural healthcare, where access to medical services can be limited. The use of digital technology to deliver medical services and information remotely can overcome geographical barriers, providing rural patients with easier access to healthcare services. It can also save time, reduce travel costs and allow for more flexible scheduling. However, telemedicine also has its drawbacks. Internet connectivity can be unreliable in rural areas, which may disrupt the delivery of services. There are also concerns about the quality of care, as telemedicine lacks the face-to-face interaction of traditional medical consultations. Finally, there are privacy and security concerns related to the use of digital technology in healthcare" ]
[ "Digital technology has transformed the world in many ways, and education is no exception. Distance learning, the educational equivalent of telemedicine, allows students in rural areas to access educational resources and instruction remotely. This can overcome geographical barriers, provide more flexible scheduling, and potentially reduce costs. However, distance learning also has its drawbacks. Internet connectivity can be unreliable in rural areas, disrupting learning. There is also a lack of face-to-face interaction, which some argue is crucial for effective learning. Finally, there are concerns about the privacy and security of students' data" ]
Given a question, Retrieve documents discussing the potential benefits and drawbacks of telemedicine
synthetic
types of roof material for flat roofs
[ "Specifically, the common types of flat roof materials used by commercial or residential roofing companies in Toronto include: Traditional Tar-and-Gravel – Also known as built-up roofing or BUR. Three (or more) alternating layers of waterproof material and hot tar. Capped with a layer of smooth stone.", "Shingle is the generic term for a roofing material that is in many overlapping sections, regardless of the nature of the material. Wood shingle, shingles sawn from bolts of wood such as red cedar which has a life expectancy of up to 30 years. However, young growth red cedar has a short life expectancy and high cost." ]
[ "Surfacings for these roll materials consist of a smooth surface, or mineral granules, aluminum, copper, or an aggregate such as gravel or slag that is set it hot asphalt. Modified Bitumen roof systems consist of one, two, or three ply systems.", "A hanger bolt is a type of wood screw with a machine screw on the other end. To fit them to a slate roof involves drilling through the slates, screwing the hanger bolt in and using silicone sealant to attempt to weatherproof the bolt. This is not a compliant method of installation and no company, despite what they tell you, can guarantee a durable weatherproof seal using silicone sealant." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Are avoidance symptoms and delayed verbal memory associated with post-traumatic stress symptoms in female victims of sexual violence?
[ "Victimization by sexual violence is strongly associated with the development of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). While several psychological and cognitive factors are known to be associated with PTSD prognosis, multivariable analysis is scarce. This study examined factors affecting the severity of PTSD symptoms in early stage of traumatic experience of sexual violence, including initial post-traumatic symptoms and cognitive characteristics. Participants were recruited from the center for women and children victims of violence in a university hospital. Thirty-four sexual assault victims were assessed at the baseline and the second visit one to five months after the baseline. At the baseline, an array of posttraumatic symptoms and cognitive functions were measured: at follow-up, PTSD symptoms were determined by Clinician Administered PTSD Scale. Stepwise multiple regression showed that avoidance symptoms (β = 0.551, P < 0.01) and delayed verbal memory (β = -0.331, P < 0.05) at early stage of trauma predicted the severity of PTSD symptoms one to five month later. The regression model, factoring in avoidance and delayed verbal memory, showed a 34.9% explanatory power regarding the PTSD symptom severity" ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Human trafficking is a pervasive global crime with important public health implications that entail fundamental human rights violations in the form of severe exploitation, violence and coercion. Sex-specific associations between types of violence or coercion and mental illness in survivors of trafficking have not been established.METHODS: We conducted a cross-sectional study with 1015 female and male survivors of trafficking (adults, adolescents and children) who received post-trafficking assistance services in Cambodia, Thailand or Vietnam and had been exploited in various labor sectors. We assessed anxiety and depression with the Hopkins Symptoms Checklist (HSCL-25) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) symptoms with the Harvard Trauma Questionnaire (HTQ), and used validated questions from the World Health Organization International Study on Women's Health and Domestic Violence to measure physical and sexual violence. Sex-specific modified Poisson regression models were estimated to obtain prevalence ratios (PRs) and their 95% confidence intervals (CI) for the association between violence (sexual, physical or both), coercion, and mental health conditions (anxiety, depression and PTSD).RESULTS: Adjusted models indicated that for females, experiencing both physical and sexual violence, compared to not being exposed to violence, was a strong predictor of symptoms of anxiety (PR = 2.08; 95% CI: 1.64-2.64), PTSD (PR = 1.55; 95% CI: 1.37-1.74), and depression (PR = 1.57; 95% CI: 1.33-1.85). Among males, experiencing physical violence with additional threats made with weapons, compared to not being exposed to violence, was associated with PTSD (PR = 1.59; 95% CI: 1.05-2.42) after adjustment. Coercion during the trafficking experience was strongly associated with anxiety, depression, and PTSD in both females and males. For females in particular, exposure to both personal and family threats was associated with a 96% elevated prevalence of PTSD (PR = 1.96; 95% CI: 1.32-2.91) and more than doubling of the prevalence of anxiety (PR = 2.11; 95% CI: 1.57-2.83).CONCLUSIONS: The experiences of violence and coercion in female and male trafficking survivors differed and were associated with an elevated prevalence of anxiety, depression, and PTSD in both females and males. Mental health services must be an integral part of service provision, recovery and re-integration for trafficked females and males.", "Nonsuicidal self-injury (NSSI) has been understudied among survivors of military sexual trauma (MST). The aims of the current study were to: (1) describe characteristics of NSSI among survivors of MST and (2) determine if MST survivors who have engaged in NSSI differ from those who have never engaged in NSSI in terms of the severity of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and depressive symptoms, trauma-related cognitions, and recent suicidal ideation. Participants were 107 veterans (65 females, 42 males) with a history of MST who completed measures of NSSI, PTSD and depressive symptoms, recent suicidal ideation, and trauma-related cognitions. Approximately one-fourth of participants (n = 27; 25.23%) endorsed a history of NSSI. The majority of participants who engaged in NSSI reported that they first engaged in NSSI following MST (n = 18; 66.67%). MST survivors with a history of NSSI reported more severe PTSD symptoms, recent suicidal ideation, and trauma-related cognitions. NSSI was relatively common in the sample and was associated with a more severe clinical presentation. Longitudinal research is needed to understand the development, maintenance, and function of NSSI in MST survivors, especially as it pertains to risk for suicidal self-directed violence." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
who led the crusade to prohibit the teaching of evolution
[ "a surge of opposition to the idea of evolution, and following the campaigning of William Jennings Bryan several states introduced legislation prohibiting the teaching of evolution. By 1925, such legislation was being considered in 15 states, and had passed in some states, such as Tennessee. The American Civil Liberties Union offered to defend anyone who wanted to bring a test case against one of these laws. John T. Scopes accepted, and confessed to teaching his Tennessee class evolution in defiance of the Butler Act, using the textbook by George William Hunter: \"\"A Civic Biology: Presented in Problems\"\" (1914). The trial," ]
[ "governor Bobby Jindal signed the bill into law. The legislation has been criticized by the American Society for Biochemistry and Molecular Biology and the Society of Vertebrate Paleontology, with the latter calling for its repeal. Conservative commentator John Derbyshire questioned the constitutionality of the law, and its likely effects: In a December 2008 \"\"Scientific American\"\" article Glenn Branch and Eugenie Scott stated: On April 1, 2008, representative Robert Wayne Cooper introduced a bill to add a \"\"new section [into state law] relating to teacher academic freedom to teach scientific evidence regarding evolution\"\" into the Missouri House of Representatives (HB2554). It", "Amendment. The Board subsequently decided to appeal the decision. In comments on December 15, 2005, in advance of releasing its decision, the appeal court panel appeared critical of the lower court ruling and a judge indicated that he did not understand the difference between evolution and abiogenesis. On December 19, 2006, the Board abandoned all of its legal activities and will no longer mandate that biology texts contain a sticker stating \"\"evolution is a theory, not a fact.\"\" Their decision was a result of compromise negotiated with a group of parents, represented by the ACLU, that were opposed to the" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
how long are tb tests valid
[ "How long is the test valid? A negative test is valid for 2 years and must not expire at any time during the semester. If you have submitted a copy of a negative test to us previously and do not know if it has expired, contact us to find out.", "Generally 6 weeks: The need to repeat a TB test generally depends on each individual's previous test results, presence of symptoms & risk factors for exposure to tb. An interval of at least 6 weeks is generally recommended. Talk to an infectious disease specialist for proper interpretation of your testing. ...Read more." ]
[ "According to the WHO multidose vial policy (WHO/V&B/00.09), opened. multidose vials of hepatitis B vaccine may be reused in subsequent. immunization sessions for up to four weeks in fixed health facilities if all the. following conditions are met.", "If your last TB Test was done after May 1, 2009: you can get one TB Test by January 11, 2010 and count your last TB test from as your 1 st Step, and your new TB test as your 2 nd Step. You will need to provide the documentation and results for both TB Tests – scanned and uploaded as one document. If your last TB Test was before May 1, 2009 – you need to get the full 2-Step TB Test done (using the Screening of TB/Vaccine of Preventable Diseases form). 2-Step TB Test Uploading Instructions: 1." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Two women buy food from a man smoking a cigarette
[ "The women are buying groceries." ]
[ "The man throws tomatoes at the women while they tell jokes." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
are incongruent hand movements agency
[ "We report a novel illusion whereby people perceive both congruent and incongruent hand motions as a united, single, and continuous motion of one's own hand (i.e. a sense of agency). This arises when individuals watch congruent and incongruent hand motions alternately from a first person perspective. Despite an individual knowing that s/he is not performing the motion, this illusion still can arise. Although a sense of agency might require congruency between predicted and actual movements, united motion is incongruent with predicted movement because the motion contains oscillating movement which results from switching hand movement images. This illusion offers new insights into the integration mechanism of predicted and observed movements on agency judgment. We investigated this illusion from a subjective experience point of view and from a motion response point of view." ]
[ "Detecting relationships between our own actions and the subsequent actions of others is critical for our social behavior. Self-actions differ from those of others in terms of action kinematics, body identity, and feedback timing. Thus, the detection of social contingency between self-actions and those of others requires comparison and integration of these three dimensions. Neuroimaging studies have highlighted the role of the frontotemporal network in action representation, but the role of each node and their relationships are still controversial. Here, we conducted a functional MRI experiment to test the hypothesis that the lateral prefrontal cortex and lateral occipito-temporal cortex are critical for the integration processes for social contingency. Twenty-four adults performed right finger gestures and then observed them as feedback. We manipulated three parameters of visual feedback: action kinematics (same or different gestures), body identity (self or other), and feedback timing (simultaneous or delayed). Three-way interactions of these factors were observed in the left inferior and middle frontal gyrus (IFG/MFG). These areas were active when self-actions were directly fed back in real-time (i.e., the condition causing a sense of agency), and when participants observed gestures performed by others after a short delay (i.e., the condition causing social contingency). In contrast, the left extrastriate body area (EBA) was sensitive to the concordance of action kinematics regardless of body identity or feedback timing. Body identity?feedback timing interactions were observed in regions including the superior parietal lobule (SPL). An effective connectivity analysis supported the model wherein experimental parameters modulated connections from the occipital cortex to the IFG/MFG via the EBA and SPL. These results suggest that both social contingency and the sense of agency are achieved by hierarchical processing that begins with simple concordance coding in the left EBA, leading to the complex coding of social relevance in the left IFG/MFG.", "Human voluntary actions are often associated with a distinctive subjective experience termed 'sense of agency'. This experience could be a reconstructive inference triggered by monitoring one's actions and their outcomes, or a read-out of brain processes related to action preparation, or some hybrid of these. Participants pressed a key with the right index finger at a time of their own choice, while viewing a rotating clock. Occasionally they received a mild shock on the same finger. They were instructed to press the key as quickly as possible if they felt a shock. On some trials, trains of subliminal shocks were also delivered, to investigate whether such subliminal cues could influence the initiation of voluntary actions, or the subjective experience of such actions. Participants' keypress were always followed by a tone 250ms later. At the end of each trial they reported the time of the keypress using the rotating clock display. Shifts in the perceived time of the action towards the following tone, compared to a baseline condition containing only a keypress but no tone, were taken as implicit measures of sense of agency. The subliminal shock train enhanced this \"action binding\" effect in healthy participants, relative to trials without such shocks. This difference could not be attributed to retrospective inference, since the perceptual events were identical in both trial types. Further, we tested the same paradigm in a patient with anarchic hand syndrome (AHS). Subliminal shocks again enhanced our measure of sense of agency in the unaffected hand, but had a reversed effect on the 'anarchic' hand. These findings suggest an interaction between internal volitional signals and external cues afforded by the external environment. Damage to the neural pathways that mediate interactions between internal states and the outside world may explain some of the clinical signs of AHS." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
should you use a spirometer to increase lung capacity
[ "The good news is that you can do something to help your body breathe more easily. Choosing the right foods, exercising and breathing exercises are effective ways to increase lung capacity. Another way to improve lung function is by using an incentive spirometer.An incentive spirometer measures and improves lung function. All Lung Institute patients receive an incentive spirometer after receiving stem cell therapy. Here’s how to use an incentive spirometer. Spirometers come in different types.f you have a Lung Institute spirometer, click here for a printable PDF that explains how to set up and use your incentive spirometer. Once you have set up the spirometer, there are exercises that you can do to strengthen your lung muscles, which will make it easier for you to breathe." ]
[ "Well both of those issues can be decreased through lung training. In this article we compare various methods of improving your lung capacity, endurance and strength. 47 males training for 12 weeks showed the following improvements in the table and chart below.", "To use an incentive spirometer, you will need the equipment, which comes in a few different models ranging in price from under $20 to over $100. You may require a doctor’s prescription for insurance reimbursement." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Personal saving rate Household wealth-to-income ratio
[ "Household wealth is associated with personal savings rates." ]
[ "Household savings has nothing to do with personal savings rates." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
does ramelteon affect ldl
[ "Melatonin has been suggested to play important roles in lipid metabolism as well as circadian rhythm; however, very few studies explored the effects of ramelteon, a selective melatonin receptor agonist, on serum lipid profiles. In this study effects of ramelteon on serum lipid profiles were explored, comparing to those of other sleep-promoting drugs including benzodiazepines and non-benzodiazepines, in patients with insomnia. We retrospectively reviewed medical charts of outpatients who were treated with ramelteon (8 mg/d) or other sleep-promoting drugs for no less than 8 weeks during the period between October 1st, 2011 and September 30th, 2014, and compared the changes in serum lipid profiles between the two groups. Patients with regular dialysis or malignant diseases treated with cytotoxic anti-cancer drugs, or whose lipid-lowering drugs were altered during the study period, were excluded. Among 365 or 855 outpatients treated with ramelteon or other sleep-promoting drugs, 35 or 46 patients, respectively, had complete serum low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) or non-high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (non-HDL-C) data. Serum LDL-C was significantly reduced from 103.14.4 to 94.64.2 mg/dL (8.2% reduction, p<0.05, n=31) in the ramelteon group, and was not significantly changed (p=0.23, n=40) in the other sleep-promoting drug group. Non-HDL-C was significantly decreased from 138.86.0 to 130.64.9 mg/dL (5.9% reduction, p<0.05, n=32) in the ramelteon group, and was not significantly altered (p=0.29, n=42) in the other sleep-promoting drug group. Ramelteon, but not other sleep-promoting drugs, specifically lowers serum LDL-C and non-HDL-C levels." ]
[ "In the present paper we have performed comparative lipidomic analysis of two prototypic atherogenic LDL modifications, oxidized LDL and enzymatically modified LDL. Oxidization of LDL was carried out with different chemical modifications starting from the same native LDL preparations: (i) by copper oxidation leading to terminally oxidized LDL (oxLDL), (ii) by moderate oxidization with HOCl (HOCl LDL), (iii) by long term storage of LDL at 4C to produce minimally modified LDL (mmLDL), or (iv) by 15-lipoxygenase, produced by a transfected fibroblast cell line (LipoxLDL). The enzymatic modification of LDL was performed by treatment of native LDL with trypsin and cholesteryl esterase (eLDL). Free cholesterol (FC) and cholesteryl esters (CE) represent the predominant lipid classes in all LDL preparations. In contrast to native LDL, which contains about two-thirds of total cholesterol as CE, enzymatic modification of LDL decreased the proportion of CE to about one-third. Free cholesterol and CE in oxLDL are reduced by their conversion to oxysterols. Oxidization of LDL preferentially influences the content of polyunsaturated phosphatidylcholine (PC) and polyunsaturated plasmalogen species, by reducing the total PC fraction in oxLDL. Concomitantly, a strong rise of the lysophosphatidylcholine (LPC) fraction can be found in oxLDL as compared to native LDL. This effect is less pronounced in eLDL. The mild oxidation of LDL with hypochlorite and/or lipoxygenase does not alter the content of the analyzed lipid classes and species in a significant manner. The lipidomic characterization of modified LDLs contributes to the better understanding their diverse cellular effects.", "OBJECTIVE: The efficacy of ramelteon, a sleep agent thought to induce natural sleep through its actions on the melatonin receptors 1 and 2, was evaluated during electroencephalography (EEG).METHODS: We retrospectively analyzed the data from 862 EEG sessions in the electronic medical records of 523 patients (mean age, 8.9 6.4 years; range, 0-38 years) who underwent EEGs in the Department of Pediatrics of Kawasaki Medical School Hospital. We compared the sleep induction statuses of patients not treated with hypnotics and those treated with the following hypnotics: ramelteon, triclofos sodium, and/or chloral hydrate.RESULTS: The success rates of sleep induction in the different groups were as follows: 440/513 (85.7%) in the hypnotic-free, 60/63 (95.2%) in the ramelteon, 209/217 (96.3%) in the triclofos sodium, 36/37 (97.3%) in the chloral hydrate, and 29/32 (90.6%) in the triclofos sodium plus chloral hydrate group. The incidence of adverse reactions was 0/63 (0%) in the ramelteon, 104/199 (52.2%) in the triclofos sodium, 12/31 (38.7%) in the chloral hydrate, and 20/30 (66.7%) in the triclofos sodium plus chloral hydrate group. The mean sleep latency in the ramelteon group was 22.3 12.8 min (range, 5-60 min).CONCLUSIONS: Ramelteon induced sleep significantly more compared to the control group. The incidence of adverse reactions after treatment with ramelteon was significantly lower than after treatment with any of the other hypnotics. These results suggest that ramelteon is useful as a hypnotic during EEG." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
symptoms gastritis ulcer
[ "The most common gastritis symptoms include: (3) burning sensations in or above the stomach/abdomen, especially around the time of eating. stomachaches or pains. feeling nauseous or vomiting. stomach bloating. loss of appetite, feeling very full quickly and possibly experiencing changes in weight." ]
[ "1 Infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria — In addition to causing gastritis, H. pylori infections have been linked to the development peptic ulcer disease, open sores inside the stomach or part of the small intestine.", "Acute gastritis is usually caused by an irritant or infection, and can result in an acute upset stomach, but usually settles quickly with simple treatments when the cause is removed. Chronic gastritis is a condition in which the stomach lining is damaged long-term, often due to infection by H. pylori. Chronic gastritis does not usually cause indigestion or pain, but severe damage may result in anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
A man in a University of New Hampshire t-shirt prepares to make smores with tinfoil, Hershey's chocolate, graham crackers and marshmallows.
[ "A man from a University prepares a sweet treat." ]
[ "Dogs go to the university where the man teaches a sex ed class." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what degree do i need to be a diagnostic medical sonographer
[ "An associate or bachelor's degree is typically required to pursue employment as a diagnostic medical sonographer. Students also have the option to graduate with a degree in a related field, pursue a certificate program in diagnostic medical sonography and then receive on-the-job training.iagnostic medical sonographers must complete 24 continuing education credits every two years to remain certified. To maintain ARDMS credentials, sonographers must earn at least 30 continuing medical education (CME) credits in a 3-year period and pay an annual renewal fee." ]
[ "A pulmonologist (sometimes referred to as a pulmonary disease specialist) is a physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions and diseases associated with the lungs.", "Diagnostic medical sonographers use sophisticated equipment to project sound waves into patients' bodies and create images of their tissues for medical diagnostic purposes. Sonographers can choose from several specialization options, including abdomen, breast, vascular and cardiac sonography.ow to Become a Diagnostic Medical Sonographer. Learn how to become a diagnostic medical sonographer. Research the job description, education and licensing requirements to find out how to start a career in medical sonography." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what does the make a move intervention do
[ "Guided by the social cognitive theory, this randomized controlled trial tested the \"Make a Move,\" a provider-led intervention for Head Start parents aimed to produce changes in the outcomes of knowledge, attitude, and behavior of physical activity and healthy eating. Participants were parents of children ages 3-5 years enrolled in a Head Start program. Participants completed a 57-item questionnaire at baseline and postintervention. The Wilcoxon rank-sum test revealed a statistically significant difference between the intervention and control groups in scores on knowledge of healthy eating ( z = 1.99, p = .05), attitude of physical activity ( z = 2.71, p < .01), and behavior of physical activity ( z = 2.03, p = .04). Ten participants (77%) completed all four intervention sessions. This study provided new insights into the relationship of a provider-led intervention with respect to knowledge, attitude, and behaviors in healthy eating and physical activity." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Regular physical activity is known to help prevent and treat numerous non-communicable diseases. Smartphone applications (apps) have been shown to increase physical activity in primary care but little is known regarding the views of patients using such technology or how such technology may change behaviour.AIM: To explore patients' views and experiences of using smartphones to promote physical activity in primary care.DESIGN AND SETTING: This qualitative study was embedded within the SMART MOVE randomised controlled trial, which used an app (Accupedo-Pro Pedometer) to promote physical activity in three primary care centres in the west of Ireland.METHOD: Taped and transcribed semi-structured interviews with a purposeful sample of 12 participants formed the basis of the investigation. Framework analysis was used to analyse the data.RESULTS: Four themes emerged from the analysis: transforming relationships with exercise; persuasive technology tools; usability; and the cascade effect. The app appeared to facilitate a sequential and synergistic process of positive change, which occurred in the relationship between the participants and their exercise behaviour; the study has termed this the 'Know-Check-Move' effect. Usability challenges included increased battery consumption and adjusting to carrying the smartphone on their person. There was also evidence of a cascade effect involving the families and communities of participants.CONCLUSION: Notwithstanding technological challenges, an app has the potential to positively transform, in a unique way, participants' relationships with exercise. Such interventions can also have an associated cascade effect within their wider families and communities.", "An extensive corpus of literature supports the positive impact of constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT) on neuroplasticity and the recovery of function. However, its clinical applicability is limited by the time of intervention and individual modality. We propose to assess the efficacy of modified CIMT protocols through a group therapy intervention. To determine the effectiveness of a group therapy, compared with individual modified CIMT, in increasing the use and functionality of movement of a paretic upper limb. The study was a single-blind, randomized parallel trial. Thirty-six patients who had had a stroke more than 6 months previously were divided randomly into two intervention groups. The independent variable was the implementation of group or individual modalities for 3 h for 10 consecutive days and the dependent variables were evaluated by the Motor Activity Log and Action Research Arm Test, at baseline (preintervention evaluation), end (postintervention evaluation), and 6 months after intervention (follow-up). By controlling the preintervention evaluations, analyses of covariance indicated that both dependent variables presented significant differences in favor of the group therapy at both the postintervention evaluation and the follow-up evaluations. Both types of intervention generated increases in the function and use of the upper extremity, with these increases being higher in the group therapy. The effects of the group therapy modality were maintained 6 months after the intervention ended." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
average wedding dress price
[ "The price of weddings has jumped to a new all-time high, reaching an average $31,213 in 2014, new research says. Surveying around 16,000 American couples, the Knot 2014 Real Weddings Study also found that 45% of weddings exceed a couple’s budgets and, more worryingly, 23% lack a budget altogether. Most brides spent an average of $1,357 alone on their wedding dress. At the same time, guest lists are shrinking even as costs rise. “The average wedding now has 136 guests, down from 149 in 2009,” says the Knot’s Rebecca Dolgin. The cheapest place to tie the knot was Utah, where couples spent only $15,000 on the big day in 2014. The most expensive place for nuptials was Manhattan at $76,328." ]
[ "Average Wedding Cost Hits All-Time High Of More Than $31,000, Survey Says. Brides and grooms are spending more on weddings than ever before, according to a new survey. The Knot's 2014 Real Weddings survey found that the average wedding spend is now $31,213. And that doesn't even include the cost of the honeymoon. The average in 2013, for comparison, was $29,858. The Knot surveyed 16,000 of their members married between January 1 and December 31, 2014.", "The price of weddings has jumped to a new all-time high, reaching an average $31,213 in 2014, new research says. Surveying around 16,000 American couples, the Knot 2014 Real Weddings Study also found that 45% of weddings exceed a couple's budgets and, more worryingly, 23% lack a budget altogether." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
can you edit a pdf in excel
[ "Depending on the type of data being imported, it may be possible to import the data contained in the PDF into an Excel workbook as text using the Text to Columns feature. 1 Open the PDF file in Adobe Reader and click the File menu. 2 Give the file a name you will recognize and then click Save.hat your coworker didn’t realize however, is that you need to manipulate the data, and PDF files are static images. Instead of bugging your coworker for a new copy, you can convert that PDF into a workable Excel spreadsheet yourself in just a few minutes." ]
[ "1 Designed for phones and tablets: To edit spreadsheets on desktops, laptops, and large tablets, an eligible Office 365 subscription is required. Touch-friendly Excel: Use your finger to drag columns and worksheets. Tap to add data and navigate large spreadsheets.", "Therefore, in order to edit an Excel array formula, you need to: 1 Select one of the cells in the array formula; 2 Make your alterations in the selected cell; Press CTRL-SHIFT-Enter to update the whole array." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
clinically useful beta lactam allergy predictive model
[ "BACKGROUND: Beta-lactam antibiotics represent the main cause of allergic reactions to drugs, inducing both immediate and nonimmediate allergies. The diagnosis is well established, usually based on skin tests and drug provocation tests, but cumbersome.OBJECTIVES: To design predictive models for the diagnosis of beta-lactam allergy, based on the clinical history of patients with suspicions of allergic reactions to beta-lactams.METHODS: The study included a retrospective phase, in which records of patients explored for a suspicion of beta-lactam allergy (in the Allergy Unit of the University Hospital of Montpellier between September 1996 and September 2012) were used to construct predictive models based on a logistic regression and decision tree method; a prospective phase, in which we performed an external validation of the chosen models in patients with suspicion of beta-lactam allergy recruited from 3 allergy centers (Montpellier, N?mes, Narbonne) between March and November 2013. Data related to clinical history and allergy evaluation results were retrieved and analyzed.RESULTS: The retrospective and prospective phases included 1991 and 200 patients, respectively, with a different prevalence of confirmed beta-lactam allergy (23.6% vs 31%, P= .02). For the logistic regression method, performances of the models were similar in both samples: sensitivity was 51% (vs 60%), specificity 75% (vs 80%), positive predictive value 40% (vs 57%), and negative predictive value 83% (vs 82%). The decision tree method reached a sensitivity of 29.5% (vs 43.5%), specificity of 96.4% (vs 94.9%), positive predictive value of 71.6% (vs 79.4%), and negative predictive value of 81.6% (vs 81.3%).CONCLUSIONS: Two different independent methods using clinical history predictors were unable to accurately predict beta-lactam allergy and replace a conventional allergy evaluation for suspected beta-lactam allergy." ]
[ "Objectives: -Lactams are commonly used for nosocomial infections and resistance to these agents among Gram-negative bacteria is increasing rapidly. Optimized dosing is expected to reduce the likelihood of resistance development during antimicrobial therapy, but the target for clinical dose adjustment is not well established. We examined the likelihood that various dosing exposures would suppress resistance development in an in vitro hollow-fibre infection model.Methods: Two strains of Klebsiella pneumoniae and two strains of Pseudomonas aeruginosa (baseline inocula of ?10 8  cfu/mL) were examined. Various dosing exposures of cefepime, ceftazidime and meropenem were simulated in the hollow-fibre infection model. Serial samples were obtained to ascertain the pharmacokinetic simulations and viable bacterial burden for up to 120 h. Drug concentrations were determined by a validated LC-MS/MS assay and the simulated exposures were expressed as C min /MIC ratios. Resistance development was detected by quantitative culture on drug-supplemented media plates (at 3? the corresponding baseline MIC). The C min /MIC breakpoint threshold to prevent bacterial regrowth was identified by classification and regression tree (CART) analysis.Results: For all strains, the bacterial burden declined initially with the simulated exposures, but regrowth was observed in 9 out of 31 experiments. CART analysis revealed that a C min /MIC ratio ?3.8 was significantly associated with regrowth prevention (100% versus 44%, P  = 0.001).Conclusions: The development of -lactam resistance during therapy could be suppressed by an optimized dosing exposure. Validation of the proposed target in a well-designed clinical study is warranted.", "BACKGROUND: Models that incorporate patterns of multiple cytokine responses to allergens, rather than individual cytokine production, may better predict sensitization and asthma.OBJECTIVE: To characterize the patterns of peripheral blood mononuclear cells' (PBMCs) cytokine responses to house dust mite (HDM) allergens among children from two population-based birth cohorts using machine learning techniques.METHODS: PBMCs collected at 8years of age from the UK Manchester Asthma and Allergy Study (n=268) and at 14years of age from the Australian Raine Study (n=1374) were cultured with HDM extract (10g/ml). Cytokine expression (IL-13, IL-5, IFN-, and IL10) was measured in the supernatant. Cytokine patterns were identified using a Gaussian mixture model clustering, and classification stability was assessed by bootstrapping.RESULTS: A six-class model indicated complex latent structure of cytokine expression. Based on the characteristics of each class, we designated them as follows: 'Nonresponders' (n=905, 55%); 'IL-10 responders' (n=49, 3%); 'IFN- and IL-13 medium responders' (n=56, 3.4%); 'IL-13 medium responders' (n=351, 21.4%); 'IL-5 and IL-13 medium responders' (n=77, 4.7%); and 'IL-13 and IL-5 high responders' (n=204, 12.4%). 'IL-13 and IL-5 high responders' were at much higher risk of HDM sensitization and asthma compared to all other classes, with 88% of children assigned to this class being sensitized and 28.5% having asthma.CONCLUSION: Using model-based clustering, we identified several distinct patterns of cytokine response to HDM and observed interplay between cytokine expression level, cytokine patterns (especially IL-13 and IL-5), and clinical outcomes. 'IL-13 and IL-5 high responders' class was strongly associated with HDM sensitization. However, among HDM-sensitized children, one-third showed no PBMC response to HDM, and the majority of HDM-sensitized children did not have asthma or wheeze. Our findings suggest that positive HDM 'allergy tests' and asthma are associated with a broad range of immunophenotypes, which may have important implications for the use of cytokine-targeted treatment approaches." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
effects of intergroups in chile
[ "Two surveys were conducted in Chile with indigenous Mapuche participants (N study 1: 573; N study 2: 198). In line with previous theorising, it was predicted that intergroup contact with the non-indigenous majority reduces prejudice. It was expected that this effect would be because of contact leading to more knowledge about the outgroup, which would then lead to less intergroup anxiety. The two studies yielded converging support for these predictions." ]
[ "Local-level immigration enforcement generates fear and reduces social service use among Hispanic immigrant families but the health impacts are largely unknown. We examine the consequence of 287(g), the foundational enforcement program, for one critical risk factor of child health-food insecurity. We analyze nationally representative data on households with children from pooled cross-sections of the Current Population Survey Food Supplemental Survey. We identify the influence of 287(g) on food insecurity pre-post-policy accounting for metro-area and year fixed-effects. We find that 287(g) is associated with a 10percentage point increase in the food insecurity risk of Mexican non-citizen households with children, the group most vulnerable to 287(g). We find no evidence of spillover effects on the broader Hispanic community. Our results suggest that local immigration enforcement policies have unintended consequences. Although 287(g) has ended, other federal-local immigration enforcement partnerships persist, which makes these findings highly policy relevant.", "We analyzed the Y chromosome haplotypes (Yfiler) of 978 non-related Chilean males grouped in five sampling regions (Iquique, Santiago de Chile, Concepci?n, Temuco and Punta Arenas) covering main geo-political regions. Overall, 803 different haplotypes and 688 singletons were observed. Molecular diversity was moderately lower than in other neighboring countries (e.g. Argentina); and AMOVA analysis on Y-STR haplotypes showed that among variation within Chile accounted for only 0.25% of the total variation. Punta Arenas, in the southern cone, showed the lowest haplotype diversity, and discrimination capacity, and also the highest matching probability of the five Chilean samples, probably reflecting its more marked geographic isolation compared to the other regions. Multidimensional scaling (MDS) analysis based on RST genetic distances suggested a close proximity of Chilean Y-chromosome profiles to European ones. Consistently, haplogroups inferred from Y-STR profiles revealed that the Native American component constituted only 8% of all the haplotypes, and this component ranged from 5% in the Centre of the country to 9-10% in the South and 13% in the North, which is in good agreement with the distribution of Native American communities in these regions. AMOVA computed on inferred haplogroups confirmed the very low among variation observed in Chilean populations. The present project provides the first Chilean dataset to the international Y-chromosome STR Haplotype Reference Database (YHRD) and it is also the first reference database for Y-chromosome forensic casework of the country." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
is a mastectomy in situ recurrence or recurrence
[ "BACKGROUND: The objective of this retrospective study was to determine the incidence of recurrence of breast cancer after mastectomy for ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) in our institution, and to evaluate the associated risk factors while comparing them to those proposed in the literature.METHODS: The files of 218 patients who had undergone mastectomy for pure DCIS or DCIS with micro-invasion at Centre Eug?ne Marquis between January 2003 and November 2013 were compared for: age at diagnosis, type of mastectomy and immediate reconstruction, tumor characteristics, and the evaluation of the sentinel axillary lymph node. The mean follow-up period was 30.5 months.RESULTS: In a mean period of 39.13 months, 8 patients (3.67%) developed a recurrence post-mastectomy, 2 of whom with distant metastasis. Two others developed distant metastases subsequently during treatment. All 4 died due to progression of metastases, while the other 4 are alive and disease-free after treatment. The only risk factor was young age at initial diagnosis (<40 years). None of the other factors described in the literature, such as high grade or diffuse disease, comedo-necrosis, positive margins or micro-invasion were statistically significant.CONCLUSION: The recurrence of breast cancer after mastectomy for DCIS is rare, however, it carries a high mortality rate for those who do relapse. Patients who have high risk factors such as young age at diagnosis and high risk tumor factors should be followed closely for signs of recurrence and/or metastasis." ]
[ "Skin-sparing mastectomy (SSM) with immediate reconstruction is standard surgical treatment for early breast cancer with widespread ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). The local recurrence rate after SSM is up to 7.0%. We investigated prediction of the pathological margin using contrast-enhanced MRI, and evaluated the cut-off point to obtain the safety margin. We performed SSM with immediate reconstruction in 216 early breast cancer patients with widespread DCIS and/or invasive cancer from January 2014 to December 2015. Forty cases were retrospectively reviewed after excluding those with >15mm between skin and tumor, determined by preoperative contrast-enhanced MRI, or involving reconstructive surgery for local recurrence, immeasurable lesion by preoperative contrast-enhanced MRI, or neoadjuvant chemotherapy. We defined a positive pathological margin as <1mm from the cancer nest. We reviewed the distance between skin and tumor by MRI and pathological examination. To identify the cut-off for predicting a positive pathological margin, we performed sensitivity analysis using an ROC curve. The margin-positive rate by pathological examination was 27.5% (n=11/40), with a moderate correlation of MRI margin and pathological margin (r=0.44). The best cut-off point for margin positivity was 5mm of MRI margin, with sensitivity and specificity of 54% and 86%, respectively (P=0.009). This is the first prediction of pathological margin by preoperative contrast-enhanced MRI in early breast cancer patients with SSM. Care is required for SSM if the MRI margin is less than 5mm due to pathological margin positivity.", "BACKGROUND/AIM: A retrospective analysis of 388 patients with pure ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) was performed in order to test the correlation of clearance margin of resection and other host-, tumor- and treatment-related factors with ipsilateral breast tumor recurrence (IBTR).MATERIALS AND METHODS: The pathological analysis was performed according to a standardized protocol: positive margins had DCIS at the inked margin; close margins had tumor between 0.1 to 0.9 mm, or 1 to 1.9 mm, and negative margins were ?2 mm.RESULTS: At a median follow-up of 90 months there were 26 IBTR (10 invasive and 16 DCIS). Both in univariate and multivariate analysis a significant difference was observed in IBTR by comparing positive versus close/negative margins of excision (p=0.05) and the number of re-operations (p=0.000). Moreover, the actuarial IBTR rates were significantly different in patients with a positive compared to close/negative margins (log-rank test, p=0.042) while the stratification by the margin width (0.1-0.9 mm; 1.0-1.9 mm; ?2 mm) was not significant (log-rank test, p=0.243).CONCLUSION: The policy of \"no ink on the tumor\" can be translated from invasive to DCIS, because the actuarial IBTR rates were significantly different only in patients with a positive, compared to close/negative margins." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what is the recovery time for a lateral ankle sprain
[ ". Ankle sprains are one of the most commonly occurring injuries in athletics. They can side-line any athlete from competing and are difficult to prevent from coming back. Mechanism of Injury Lateral ankle sprain: usually from inversion with plantarflexion (turning the toes in while pointing them down) leading to injury of the ligaments on the outside of the ankle. Medial ankle sprain: usually from eversion with dorsiflexion (turning the toes out while pointing them up) leading to injury of the ligaments on the medial side of the ankle. Because the ligament here (deltoid ligament) is very strong, this injury is rarer and can take up to twice as long to heal than lateral sprains. It is also often associated with fractures of the fibula or other bones in the ankle (medial malleolus, talar dome, articular surfaces). Syndesmotic sprain: Injury to the front and/or back lower ligaments of the ankle. This often occurs from hyperdorsiflexion (pointing the toes up too far) and eversion (pointing the toes out). Signs and Symptoms Lateral Ankle Sprain Potential significant swelling within 2 hours because of the rich blood supply. Tender to the touch over the outside ankle ligaments, bruising that drains into the foot. Different levels of instability (depending on grade of the sprain). Positive tests for ligament laxity of your outside ankle ligaments. X-ray shows no signs of fracture. Medial Ankle Sprain. Tender to the touch over the inside ankle ligament. Bruising and swelling along the medial side of the ankle Positive test for ligament laxity of the inside ankle ligament. X-ray needed to rule out avulsion fracture (bone fragment pulled away from the bone) or fracture of the inside ankle bone, or top of the ankle. Syndesmotic Sprain Positive tests for front/back ligament laxity and severe swelling (possibly fracture) in the lower leg Pain and swelling over the front/back ligaments and the lower leg space. Specific X-ray may show abnormal joint space in the lower leg. Recovery time is longer compared to other sprains. Need to rule out fracture and avulsion. There are 3 degrees of ankle sprains which indicate the severity of the sprain:1st degree: involves minimal swelling, point tenderness, no ligament laxity, no limp or difficulty hopping. An athlete typically recovers in 2-10 days.2nd degree: has more swelling specific to the ankle, increased ligament laxity, a limp and athlete is unable to heel raise, hop, or run. Typical recovery time is 10-30 days.3rd degree : includes a lot of swelling, tenderness on both the inside and outside of the ankle, even more ligament laxity, and the athlete cannot put any weight on the ankle. Recovery can be anywhere from 30-90 days or more. On-Site Management Immediate treatment of ankle injuries requires the P. R. I. C. E treatment principles. This is in order to limit the swelling and subsequent delay of rehabilitation. Any blood flow inducing activities such as hot showers, heat rubs or excessive weight bearing should be avoided. P. R. I. C. E. PROTECT the area from further injury by avoiding exercises that produce pain. A protective boot can be worn for 4 weeks with a syndesmotic ankle sprain. REST: cutting back on the amount of training can be difficult, but key to recovery. Gradually return to any agility or jumping activities. Place ICE on your ankle for 10-20 minutes every 1.5 to 2 hours for the first 2 to 3 days or until the pain goes away. COMPRESS the area by having a trainer or physiotherapist use an ankle wrap with a tensor. This helps decrease swelling and internal bleeding. ELEVATION is important to encourage blood flow to your heart for healing. Medical Referral and Rehabilitation When there is a 2nd or 3rd degree ankle sprain or a syndesmotic sprain it is important that you seek medical attention to rule out a fracture. A physician may prescribe anti-inflammatory medication to help decrease pain and swelling. Once a sprain has been confirmed it is important to see a therapist in order to properly treat and rehabilitate the injury before returning to play. Changes to footwear, posture and biomechanics, orthotics, bracing options and return to play protocol will be determined by the therapist, depending on the specific injury. A therapist may use ultrasound and laser treatment to reduce pain and swelling and promote healing. Friction massage is another treatment to promote healing and reduce scar tissue development. The therapist will also focus on restoring full range of motion in the ankle and regaining proprioception, and surrounding muscular strength. The therapist will also prescribe a full ankle rehabilitation program to strengthen the joint and help prevent future ankle sprains. Return to Activity This is a gradual process and time is dependent of a variety of factors including: degree of injury severity, duration of symptoms prior to treatment, history of injury to the area, compliance to treatment and rehabilitation protocol. The following is a list of guidelines to follow when returning to activity. Work towards full range of motion in the affected ankle compared to the unaffected ankle. Work towards full strength of the affected ankle compared to the unaffected ankle. Work towards jogging straight ahead without pain or limping and progress up to weaving and cutting laterally, in addition to hoping and jumping on the affected ankle. Common tests your therapist may use to monitor your return to play: Lateral hop test: You will stand on the “uninjured” leg and hop as far as possible in an outside direction with three continuous hops. You then stand on the “injured” leg and hop back to where you started, using three continuous hops. Single leg stance (Modified Rhomberg Test): You stand and balance on the uninjured leg with your arms crossed over the chest. Then you stand and balance on the injured leg to compare. Heel rocker test: You lean backward against a wall and pull the toes and front of both feet off the ground while rocking backward on your heels. You raise the toes repeatedly off the ground until full exhaustion. Ankle joint dorsiflexion: With a measuring device, your therapist will measure your range of motion with the knee straight and bent. Test for joint laxity: A manual anterior drawer stress test (for ligaments of the ankle) will be applied to the injured and non-injured ankle. Stair run: Your therapist will observe you running down stairs without holding on to the handrail. For competitive athletes, the list may be extended to include the following: You can sprint straight ahead without pain or limping. You can do 45-degree cuts, first at half-speed, then at full-speed. You can do 20-yard figures-of-eight, first at half-speed, then at full-speed. You can do 90-degree cuts, first at half-speed, then at full-speed. You can do 10-yard figures-of-eight, first at half-speed, then at full-speed. You can jump on both legs without pain and you can jump on the affected leg without pain. (Pierre Rouzier, M. D). Prevention In order to prevent an ankle sprain from becoming a chronic injury several preventative measures should be taken. After an ankle sprain the risk of reinjuring the ankle post-injury is increased for at least 6 to 12 months. Both prophylactic and neuromuscular techniques can be utilized to decrease the incidence of inversion sprain re-injury. Prophylactic methods can include a variety of taping and bracing options. Prophylactic methods give support to the ankle joint and prevent full range of motion; therefore they are good temporary options. Neuromuscular training looks to re-establish the protective reflexes and strengthen the joints ligaments. There is support that after eight to ten weeks of intensive training neuromuscular training can help prevent re-injury but immediate effects are not generally seen. Your browser does not currently recognize any of the video formats available. Click here to visit our frequently asked questions about HTML5 video.0:00 / 6:55Brukner, P. and Khan, K. Brukner and Khan's Clinical Sports Medicine Brukner, P. and Khan, K. (2007) Brukner and Khan's Clinical Sports Medicine. 4th ed. North Ryde: Mc Graw-Hill. Sport Med BC offers a number of hands on Sport Safety Courses and Workshops on topics including Concussion Management, Athletic Taping and Sports First Aid. For more information and to find an upcoming course near you browse our Course Catalogue or contact us to coordinate a private session for your club or association." ]
[ "Sprained ankle \"Sprained ankle From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedianavigation search For the 2015 album by Julien Baker, see Sprained Ankle (album). Sprained ankle Lateral view of the human ankle Specialty Orthopedics, sports medicine A sprained ankle, also known as a twisted ankle or rolled ankle, is a common injury where sprain occurs on one or more ligaments of the ankle. Contents [ hide ]1 Signs and symptoms2 Cause3 Diagnosis3.1 Classification of severity3.2 Types and methods of ankle sprains3.2.1 Inversion (lateral) ankle sprain3.2.2 Eversion (medial) ankle sprain3.2.3 High (syndesmotic) ankle sprain4 Treatment4.1 Conservative measures4.2 Rehabilitation and recovery4.2.1 Ankle immobilization4.2.2 Ankle mobilization/manipulation4.2.3 Ankle exercises4.2.4 Flexibility exercises4.2.5 Strengthening exercises4.2.6 Balance exercises4.2.7 Agility exercises5 Prognosis6 Epidemiology6.1 Previous ankle sprains6.2 Age6.3 US Military6.4 Male vs. female7 References8 External links Signs and symptoms [ edit]Knowing the symptoms that can be experienced with a sprain is important in determining that the injury is not really a break in the bone. When a sprain occurs, blood vessels will leak fluid into the tissue that surrounds the joint. White blood cells responsible for inflammation migrate to the area, and blood flow increases as well. [1] Along with this inflammation, swelling from the fluid and pain is experienced. The nerves in the area become more sensitive when the injury is suffered, so pain is felt as throbbing and will worsen if there is pressure placed on the area. Warmth and redness are also seen as blood flow is increased. Also there is a decreased ability to move the joint. Right foot, housed in an air brace, has become swollen as a result of a more severe 2nd degree sprain to the ankle. Right foot. A light 2nd degree sprain, two days after injury. Right foot, 3rd degree sprain. One day after injury. Cause [ edit]Movements - especially turning, and rolling of the foot - are the primary cause of an ankle sprain. [2]The risk of a sprain is greatest during activities that involve explosive side-to-side motion, such as squash, tennis, or basketball. Sprained ankles can also occur during normal daily activities such as stepping off a curb or slipping on ice. Returning to activity before the ligaments have fully healed may cause them to heal in a stretched position, resulting in less stability at the ankle joint. This can lead to a condition known as Chronic Ankle Instability (CAI), and an increased risk of ankle sprains. The following factors can contribute to an increased risk of ankle sprains: Weak muscles/tendons that cross the ankle joint, especially the muscles of the lower leg that cross the outside, or lateral aspect of the ankle joint (i.e. peroneal or fibular muscles);Weak or lax ligaments that join together the bones of the ankle joint – this can be hereditary or due to overstretching of ligaments as a result of repetitive ankle sprains;Inadequate joint proprioception (i.e. sense of joint position);Slow neuron muscular response to an off-balance position;Running on uneven surfaces;Shoes with inadequate heel support [ citation needed]; and Wearing high-heeled shoes – due to the weak position of the ankle joint with an elevated heel, and a small base of support. Ankle sprains occur usually through excessive stress on the ligaments of the ankle. This can be caused by excessive external rotation, inversion or eversion of the foot caused by an external force. When the foot is moved past its range of motion, the excess stress puts a strain on the ligaments. If the strain is great enough to the ligaments past the yield point, then the ligament becomes damaged, or sprained. [3] [4]Diagnosis [ edit]The diagnosis of a sprain relies on the medical history, including symptoms, as well as making a differential diagnosis, mainly in distinguishing it from strains or bone fractures. The Ottawa ankle rule is a simple, widely used rule to help differentiate fractures of the ankle or mid-foot from other ankle injuries that do not require x-ray radiography. It has a sensitivity of nearly 100%, meaning that a patient who tests negative, according to the rule almost certainly does not have an ankle fracture. [5]Classification of severity [ edit]Ankle sprains are classified grade 1, 2, and 3. [6] Depending on the amount of damage or the number of ligaments that are damaged, each sprain is classified from mild to severe. A grade 1 sprain is defined as mild damage to a ligament or ligaments without instability of the affected joint. A grade 2 sprain is considered a partial tear to the ligament, in which it is stretched to the point that it becomes loose. A grade 3 sprain is a complete tear of a ligament, causing instability in the affected joint. [7] Bruising may occur around the ankle. [8]Types and methods of ankle sprains [ edit]Inversion (lateral) ankle sprain [ edit]The most common type of ankle sprain occurs when the foot is inverted too much, affecting the lateral side of the foot. When this type of ankle sprain happens, the outer, or lateral, ligaments are stretched too much. The anterior talofibular ligament is one of the most commonly involved ligaments in this type of sprain. Approximately 70-85% of ankle sprains are inversion injuries. Ankle Inversion When the ankle becomes inverted, the anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular ligaments are damaged. This is the most common ankle sprain. Eversion (medial) ankle sprain [ edit]A less common type of ankle sprain is called an eversion injury, affecting the medial side of the foot. This happens when the foot, instead of the ankle rotating medially resulting in an inversion (the foot being rolling to the inside), the ankle rotates laterally resulting in an eversion (when the foot rolls to the outside). When this occurs, the medial, or deltoid, ligament is stretched too much. High (syndesmotic) ankle sprain [ edit]A high ankle sprain is an injury to the large ligaments above the ankle that join together the two long bones of the lower leg, called the tibia and fibula. High ankle sprains commonly occur from a sudden and forceful outward twisting of the foot, which commonly occurs in contact and cutting sports such as football, rugby, ice hockey, roller derby, basketball, volleyball, lacrosse, softball, baseball, track, ultimate frisbee, soccer, tennis and badminton and horse riding. Treatment [ edit]Initial treatment commonly consists of rest, icing, compression and elevation (which is often referred to by the mnemonic RICE or sometimes PRICE with P being \"\"protection\"\"). These are recommended by physicians for the treatment of soft tissue damage, and sprained ankles are one of the most common soft tissue injuries. RICE helps limit the amount of swelling to the area, and \"\"facilitates venous and lymphatic drainage\"\". [9]Conservative measures [ edit]A brace offering moderate support and compression for a Grade I ankle sprain. Ice is often used to reduce swelling in cycles of 15–20 minutes on and 20–30 minutes off. Icing an ankle too long can cause cold injuries, indicated if the area turns white. [10]In uncomplicated lateral ankle sprains, swelling of the soft tissue can be prevented with compression around both malleoli, elevation of the injured ankle higher than the heart, and pain-free exercises. [11]An orthopedic walking boot is often used for the treatment of a sprained ankle injury. Braces and crutches are also used to help alleviate the pain so the injured ankle can heal as quickly and painlessly as possible. Although found to be less effective than casts, compression bandages are used to provide support and compression for sprained ankles. Wrapping is started at the ball of the foot and slowly continued up to the base of the calf muscle, which pushes the swelling up toward the center of the body so that it does not gather in the foot. Rehabilitation and recovery [ edit]Many different types of rehabilitation exercises can be done to aid an ankle sprain regardless of the severity of the injury. The purpose of rehabilitation gives the ability for the ankle to regain strength and flexibility. A sprained ankle becomes swollen due to the increased amount of edema within the tissue, since this physiological effect is the foundation of the pain the decline of edema is the main goal during the beginning of rehabilitation. [12] This can be done instantly by implementing the RICE mechanism which is resting the ankle, applying ice, compressing, and elevating it. [9] The emphasis of the first week of rehabilitation should be on protecting the ankle to avoid further damage. As the healing progresses, stress can be applied by different mechanisms until the ankle is fully recovered. [13] The key to a fast recovery is to implement all the different types of ankle sprain exercises so that the range of motion will increase while the pain is decreasing. [14]In cases where the ankle does not heal in an appropriate amount of time, other exercises need to be implemented so that strength and flexibility can be regained. Physical therapists assign different types of ankle sprain exercises that deal with ankle flexibility, strengthening, balance, and agility. If an ankle sprain does not heal properly, the joint may become unstable and may lead to chronic pain. [15] Receiving proper treatment and performing exercises that promote ankle function is important to strengthen the ankle and prevent further injury. Ankle immobilization [ edit]A short period of immobilization in a below-knee cast or in an Aircast leads to a faster recovery at 3 months compared to a tubular compression bandage. [16] In contrast, a randomized controlled trial has concluded that appropriate exercise immediately after a sprain improves function and recovery. [17] These exercises were focused on increasing ankle range of movement, activation and strengthening of ankle musculature, and restoring normal sensorimotor control, and were carried out for 20 minutes, three times a day. [17] After the injury it is advisable not to walk for a couple of days. Bed rest will help to accelerate the healing process and eliminate the chance of mishandling the affected limb. Driving vehicles or operating machinery should not be attempted. The amount of therapy that a person can handle will depend on their level of pain and the grade of sprain they experienced. It is not recommended to return to sports or extreme physical activities until hopping on the ankle is possible without pain. Wearing high-top tennis shoes may also help prevent ankle sprains if the shoes used are laced snugly and if the ankle is taped with a wide, nonelastic adhesive tape. [18]Ankle mobilization/manipulation [ edit]For acute ankle sprains, manual joint mobilization/manipulation of the ankle has been found to diminish pain and increase range of motion. For treatment of subacute/chronic lateral ankle sprains, these techniques improved ankle range-of-motion, decreased pain and improved function. [19]Ankle exercises [ edit]To prevent sprains or re-injury from occurring, strengthening and stretching exercises should be done through a full range of ankle motion. To improve ankle mobility, ankle circles can be performed by extending the legs in front of the body and then moving the foot up and down, side to side, or rotating the foot in a circle. Another common exercise to improve mobility as well as proprioception is to use the toes to draw the letters of the alphabet in the air. Most importantly, the lateral aspect of the ankle joint should be strengthened with eversion exercises (i.e. underside of the foot is turned outward against resistance) to improve lateral ankle stability. [20] Stretching is also an important component of a strengthening program, to help maintain joint flexibility. Balance and stability training are especially important to retrain the ankle muscles to work together to support the joint. [21] This includes exercises that are performed by standing on one foot and using the injured ankle to lift the body onto its toes. To further enhance balance and stability, exercise devices such as the wobble board can be used, progressing from double-leg to single-leg stance, first with eyes open and then with eyes closed, for enhanced effectiveness. Flexibility exercises [ edit]Example of a flexibility exercise is a towel stretch [22] and writing the alphabet with toes which will increase the range of motion. Strengthening exercises [ edit]Ankle strengthening exercises are step ups and walking on toes which will strengthen the muscles around the swollen area. Balance exercises [ edit]Balance exercises include the use of a balance board, which helps the whole body function to maintain balance. The use of balance boards has been shown to produce significantly positive results in gaining proper balance. [23]Agility exercises [ edit]Rehabilitation Exercises for an ankle sprain Plyometrics exercises such as squat jumps and power skipping should not be implemented until the ankle has regained full agility. Other strategies that can be used to prevent ankle injury include: Ensure proper warm-up prior to stretching and activity;When running, choose level surfaces and avoid rocks or holes;Ensure that shoes have adequate heel support; and... If high-heeled shoes are worn, ensure that heels are no more than 2 inches in height, and avoid heels with a narrow base. Prognosis [ edit]Most people improve significantly in the first two weeks. However, some still have problems with pain and instability after one year (5–30%). Re-injury is also very common. [24]Epidemiology [ edit]Adolescents vs general population ankle sprain incidences Ankle Sprain Epidemiology- U. S. Military vs General Population Ankle sprains can occur through either sports or activities of daily living, and individuals can be at higher or lower risk depending on a variety of circumstances including their homeland, race, age, sex, or profession. [25] In addition, there are different types of ankle sprains such as eversion ankle sprains and inversion ankle sprains. Overall, the most common type of ankle sprain to occur is an inversion ankle sprain, where excessive plantar flexion and supination cause the anterior talofibular ligament to be affected. A study showed that for a population of Scandinavians, inversion ankle sprains accounted for 85% of all ankle sprains. [23] Most ankle sprains occur in more active people, such as athletes and regular exercisers. Previous ankle sprains [ edit]When an ankle sprain occurs, subsequent ankle sprains are much more likely to follow. [26] The most widely recommended preventative measures for recurring sprains are wearing ankle-protective gear [27] (tape, or ankle brace) and implementing exercises designed to strengthen the ankle and improve one's balance (e.g. balance ball exercises). In a review article of ankle sprain prevention research, the authors reference a season-long study on a group of soccer players. 60 players wore ankle-protective (tape or ankle-braces) throughout the soccer season, and another 171 players were enrolled in the control group, as they wore no ankle protective gear. At the end of the season, 17% of the players who did not wear ankle braces/tape sprained their ankles, while only 3% of the players who wore protection incurred the same injury. Amongst the players who sprained their ankles and did not wear ankle-protective gear, 25% had a history of previous ankle sprains. [28] Another peer-reviewed article references a study which concluded that ankle exercising could decrease the risk of recurring sprains by 11%. [29]Age [ edit]In a study comparing the prevalence of ankle sprains between age, race, and sex, individuals who were aged 10–19 years old had highest incidences of ankle sprains. [30] It can be suggested that adolescents are more physically active, which leads to higher chances of ankle sprains. Since sports deal with high utilization of the ankle, over 50% of ankle sprains are due to sport-related injuries. [31]Ankle sprain incidence rates of average males to females US Military [ edit]Moreover, average ankle sprains for the general U. S. population are estimated at 5-7 ankle sprains for every 1000 person-years; however a study showed that for military cadets’ incidences for ankle sprains were about 10 times those of the general population [32]Male vs. female [ edit]Another study comparing gender influences on ankle sprains found that male and female counterparts had similar incidence rates of ankle sprains. However, at a specific age range of 19–25 years old, males were found to have a substantially greater rate of ankle sprains than females. Furthermore, at ages 30 and over, females showed a higher incidence of ankle sprains than males. [25] From this, it can be said that age and activity levels are better indicators of ankle sprain risks than sex. References [ edit]^ Ankle Sprains Symptoms -e Medicine Health.com, Retrieved on 2010-01-22.^ Sprained Ankle - American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons, Retrieved on 2010-01-22.^ Wikstrom EA, Wikstrom AM, Hubbard-Turner T (2012). \"\"Ankle sprains: treating to prevent the long-term consequences\"\". JAAPA. 25 (10): 40–2, 44–5. doi: 10.1097/01720610-201210000-00009. PMID 23115869.^ Gehring D, Wissler S, Mornieux G, Gollhofer A (2013). \"\"How to sprain your ankle — a biomechanical case report of an inversion trauma\"\". J Biomech. 46 (1): 175–8. doi: 10.1016/j.jbiomech.2012.09.016. PMID 23078945.^ Bachmann LM, Kolb E, Koller MT, Steurer J, ter Riet G (February 2003). \"\"Accuracy of Ottawa ankle rules to exclude fractures of the ankle and mid-foot: systematic review\"\". BMJ. 326 (7386): 417. doi: 10.1136/bmj.326.7386.417. PMC 149439. PMID 12595378.^ Moreira V, Antunes F (2008). \"\" [Ankle sprains: from diagnosis to management. the physiatric view]\"\". Acta Med Port (in Portuguese). 21 (3): 285–92. PMID 18674420.^ \"\"Sprained Ankle\"\". American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons. Retrieved 2 November 2011.^ Stanley, James. \"\"Sprained Ankle\"\". North Yorkshire Orthopaedic Specialists. Retrieved 2 November 2012.^ a b Wolfe MW, Uhl TL, Mattacola CG, Mc Cluskey LC (2001). > \"\"Management of ankle sprains\"\". Am Fam Physician. 63 (1): 93–104. PMID 11195774.^ Lifestyle and home remedies, Mayo Clinic.com. Retrieved 3 May 2010.^ Aronen JG, Garrick JG (2009). \"\"Acute Ankle Injuries, Part 1: Office Evaluation and Management\"\". Consultant. 49: 413–421. Aronen JG, Garrick JG (2009). \"\"Acute Ankle Injuries, Part 2: Treatment of Uncomplicated Lateral Ankle Sprains\"\". Consultant. 49: 734–740.^ Coté DJ, Prentice WE, Hooker DN, Shields EW (1988). \"\"Comparison of three treatment procedures for minimizing ankle sprain swelling\"\". Phys Ther. 68 (7): 1072–6. PMID 3133668.^ Mattacola CG, Dwyer MK (2002). \"\"Rehabilitation of the Ankle After Acute Sprain or Chronic Instability\"\". J Athl Train. 37 (4): 413–429. PMC 164373. PMID 12937563.^ Zöch C, Fialka-Moser V, Quittan M (2003). \"\"Rehabilitation of ligamentous ankle injuries: a review of recent studies\"\". Br J Sports Med. 37 (4): 291–5. doi: 10.1136/bjsm.37.4.291. PMC 1724658. PMID 12893710.^ Sprained Ankle Overview - Webmd.com, Retrieved on 2010-01-22.^ Lamb SE, Marsh JL, Hutton JL, Nakash R, Cooke MW (February 2009). \"\"Mechanical supports for acute, severe ankle sprain: a pragmatic, multicentre, randomised controlled trial\"\". Lancet. 373 (9663): 575–81. doi: 10.1016/S0140-6736 (09)60206-3. PMID 19217992.^ a b Bleakley CM, O'Connor SR, Tully MA, et al. (2010). \"\"Effect of accelerated rehabilitation on function after ankle sprain: randomised controlled trial\"\". BMJ. 340: c1964. doi: 10.1136/bmj.c1964. PMID 20457737.^ Ankle Sprains: Healing and Preventing Injury - Family doctor.org, Retrieved on 2010-01-22.^ Loudon JK, Reiman MP, Sylvain J (2013). \"\"The efficacy of manual joint mobilisation/manipulation in treatment of lateral ankle sprains: a systematic review\"\". Br J Sports Med. 48 (5): 365–70. doi: 10.1136/bjsports-2013-092763. PMID 23980032.^ Arnold BL, Linens SW, de la Motte SJ, Ross SE (Nov–Dec 2009). \"\"Concentric evertor strength differences and functional ankle instability: A meta-analysis\"\". Journal of Athletic Training. 44 (6): 653–662. doi: 10.4085/1062-6050-44.6.653. PMC 2775368. PMID 19911093.^ Sprained Ankle: Treatment and Drugs - Mayo clinic.com, Retrieved on 2010-01-22.^ http://www.livestrong.com/article/470163-ankle-towel-stretch// towel stretch^ a b Wester JU, Jespersen SM, Nielsen KD, Neumann L (1996). \"\"Wobble board training after partial sprains of the lateral ligaments of the ankle: a prospective randomized study\"\". J Orthop Sports Phys Ther. 23 (5): 332–6. doi: 10.2519/jospt.1996.23.5.332. PMID 8728532.^ Margo KL (December 2008). \"\"Review: many adults still have pain and subjective instability at 1 year after acute lateral ankle sprain\"\". Evid Based Med. 13 (6): 187. doi: 10.1136/ebm.13.6.187. PMID 19043045.^ a b Waterman BR, Owens BD, Davey S, Zacchilli MA, Belmont PJ (2010). \"\"The epidemiology of ankle sprains in the United States\"\". J Bone Joint Surg Am. 92 (13): 2279–84. doi: 10.2106/JBJS. I.01537. PMID 20926721.^ \"\"Chronic Ankle Instability\"\". www.foothealthfacts.org. Foot Health Facts. Retrieved 2018-04-04.^ Stoimenov, Vassil (2018-03-17). \"\"How to Prevent The Injuries Most Likely to Happen to You\"\". Positive Med. USA: Positive Med. Retrieved 2018-04-04.^ Gross M, Liu H (2003). \"\"The Role of Ankle Bracing for Prevention of Ankle Sprain Injuries\"\". J Orthop Sports Phys Ther. 33 (10): 572–577. doi: 10.2519/jospt.2003.33.10.572.^ Hayman J, Prasad S, Stulberg D, Hickner J (2010). \"\"Help patients prevent repeat ankle injury\"\" (PDF). J Fam Pract. 59 (1). PMC 3183932. PMID 20074499.^ Bridgman SA, Clement D, Downing A, Walley G, Phair I, Maffulli N (2003). \"\"Population based epidemiology of ankle sprains attending accident and emergency units in the West Midlands of England, and a survey of UK practice for severe ankle sprains\"\". Emerg Med J. 20 (6): 508–10. doi: 10.1136/emj.20.6.508. PMC 1726220. PMID 14623833.^ Yeung MS, Chan K, So CH, Yuan WY (1994). \"\"An epidemiological survey on ankle sprain\"\". Journal of Sports Medicine. 28 (2): 112–6. doi: 10.1136/bjsm.28.2.112.^ Waterman BR, Belmont PJ, Cameron KL, Deberardino TM, Owens BD (2010). \"\"Epidemiology of ankle sprain at the United States Military Academy\"\". Am J Sports Med. 38 (4): 797–803. doi: 10.1177/0363546509350757. PMID 20145281. External links [ edit]Classification V · T · DICD - 10: S93.4 ICD - 9-CM: 845.00 Diseases DB: 726External resources Medline Plus: 003167 e Medicine: search/ankle%20sprain Right Ankle Pain ICD 10 [ hide]v t e Dislocations / subluxations, sprains and strains Joints and ligaments Head and neck Dislocation of jaw Whiplash Shoulder and upper arm GH ( Dislocated shoulder) AC ( Separated shoulder) ALPSA lesion SLAP tear Bankart lesion Elbow and forearm Nursemaid's elbow Gamekeeper's thumb Hip and thigh Dislocation of hip Knee and leg Tear of meniscus Anterior cruciate ligament injury Unhappy triad Patellar dislocation Ankle and foot Sprained ankle ( High ankle sprain) Metatarsophalangeal joint sprain ( Turf toe)Muscles and tendons Shoulder and upper arm Rotator cuff tear Hip and thigh Pulled hamstring Knee and leg Patellar tendon rupture Achilles tendon rupture Shin splints Categories: Dislocations, sprains and strains \"" ]
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Does inhibition of Rho-associated kinases disturb the collective cell migration of stratified TE-10 cells?
[ "The collective cell migration of stratified epithelial cells is considered to be an important phenomenon in wound healing, development, and cancer invasion; however, little is known about the mechanisms involved. Furthermore, whereas Rho family proteins, including RhoA, play important roles in cell migration, the exact role of Rho-associated coiled coil-containing protein kinases (ROCKs) in cell migration is controversial and might be cell-type dependent. Here, we report the development of a novel modified scratch assay that was used to observe the collective cell migration of stratified TE-10 cells derived from a human esophageal cancer specimen. Desmosomes were found between the TE-10 cells and microvilli of the surface of the cell sheet. The leading edge of cells in the cell sheet formed a simple layer and moved forward regularly; these rows were followed by the stratified epithelium. ROCK inhibitors and ROCK small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) disturbed not only the collective migration of the leading edge of this cell sheet, but also the stratified layer in the rear. In contrast, RhoA siRNA treatment resulted in more rapid migration of the leading rows and disturbed movement of the stratified portion" ]
[ "The interaction of SDF-1alpha with its receptor CXCR4 plays a role in the occurrence of distant metastasis in many solid tumors. This interaction increases migration from primary sites as well as homing at distant sites. Here we investigated how SDF-1α could modulate both migration and adhesion of cancer cells through the modulation of RhoGTPases. We show that different concentrations of SDF-1α modulate the balance of adhesion and migration in cancer cells. Increased migration was obtained at 50 and 100 ng/ml of SDF-1α; however migration was reduced at 200 ng/ml. The adhesion between breast cancer cells and BMHC was significantly increased by SDF-1α treatment at 200 ng/ml and reduced using a blocking monoclonal antibody against CXCR4. We showed that at low SDF-1α concentration, RhoA was activated and overexpressed, while at high concentration Rac1 was promoting SDF-1α mediating-cell adhesion", "T cell migration is essential for immune responses and inflammation. Activation of the T-cell receptor (TCR) triggers a migration stop signal to facilitate interaction with antigen-presenting cells and cell retention at inflammatory sites, but the mechanisms responsible for this effect are not known. Migrating T cells are polarized with a lamellipodium at the front and uropod at the rear. Here we show that transient TCR activation induces prolonged inhibition of T-cell migration. TCR pre-activation leads to cells with multiple lamellipodia and lacking a uropod even after removal of the TCR signal. A similar phenotype is induced by expression of constitutively active Rac1, and TCR signaling activates Rac1. TCR signaling acts via Rac to reduce phosphorylation of ezrin/radixin/moesin proteins, which are required for uropod formation, and to increase stathmin phosphorylation, which regulates microtubule stability. T cell polarity and migration is partially restored by inhibiting Rac or by expressing constitutively active moesin" ]
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qa_pairs
what is chromo paper
[ "Definition of CHROMO PAPER. : a coated paper suitable for color printing.ADVERTISEMENT. This word doesn't usually appear in our free dictionary, but the definition from our premium Unabridged Dictionary is offered here on a limited basis.ote that some information is displayed differently in the Unabridged. To access the complete Unabridged Dictionary, with an additional 300,000 words that aren't in our free dictionary, start a free trial." ]
[ "Chromolithography is a method for making multi-colour prints. This type of colour printing stemmed from the process of lithography, and it includes all types of lithography that are printed in colour.When chromolithography is used to reproduce photographs, the term photochrome is frequently used.Lithographers sought to find a way to print on flat surfaces with the use of chemicals instead of relief or intaglio printing.hen chromolithography is used to reproduce photographs, the term photochrome is frequently used. Lithographers sought to find a way to print on flat surfaces with the use of chemicals instead of relief or intaglio printing.", "Paper chromatography using a non-polar solvent is therefore a type of partition chromatography. Paper chromatography using a water and other polar solvents A moment's thought will tell you that partition can't be the explanation if you are using water as the solvent for your mixture.he mobile phase is a suitable liquid solvent or mixture of solvents. Producing a paper chromatogram You probably used paper chromatography as one of the first things you ever did in chemistry to separate out mixtures of coloured dyes-for example, the dyes which make up a particular ink." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Continuing down High Street, you will walk past several stores selling highland dress and cashmere before you reach John Knox House, on the left side of the road.
[ "The John Knox House is located along a road with shops." ]
[ "High street contains nothing of commercial or historical note." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
Do mutational analyses on X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy reveal a novel cryptic splicing and three missense mutations in the ABCD1 gene?
[ "X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy is caused by a defective peroxisomal membrane transporter, ABCD1, responsible for transporting very-long-chain fatty acid substrate into peroxisomes for degradation. The main biochemical defect, which is also one of the major diagnostic hallmarks, of X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy is the accumulation of saturated very-long-chain fatty acids in all tissues and body fluids. Direct and reverse-transcribed polymerase chain reactions followed by DNA sequencing-based mutational analyses were performed on one Taiwanese and three Malaysian X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy families. A novel splicing donor site mutation (c.1272+1g>a) was identified in a Taiwanese X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy patient, resulting in a deletion of 121 bp and a premature stop codon (p.Val425fs*92) in messenger-RNA transcript. This deletion is caused by the activation of a cryptic splicing donor site in exon 4 of the ABCD1 gene, which is consistent with the prediction by several online algorithms. In addition, three previously described missense mutations (c.965T>C, c.1978C>T, and c.2006A>G), leading to aberrant ABCD1 of p.Leu322Pro, p.Arg660Trp, and p.His669Arg, were also identified in Malaysian probands" ]
[ "INTRODUCTION: Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy (EDMD) is a hereditary myopathy characterized as triad of muscular dystrophy, joint contractures, and conduction cardiomyopathy. In this study, we diagnosed a X-linked recessive EDMD patient with severe conduction cardiomyopathy while noteless muscular and joint disorders.METHODS: A Chinese cardiomyopathy family spanning four generations was enrolled in the study. Targeted next-generation sequencing (NGS) was performed to identify the underlying mutation in the proband and validated by Sanger sequencing. Segregation analysis was applied to all 13 participants.RESULTS: A novel frameshift mutation (c.253_254insT, p.Y85Lfs*8) of emerin gene (EMD) was found and co-segregated with family members. Other than the typical manifestations of X-linked EDMD, this patient presented inconspicuous muscular disorders which were later diagnosed after the mutation been identified.CONCLUSIONS: This study enriches the EMD gene mutation database and reminds us of the possibility of EDMD while encountering patients with severe heart rhythm defects or dilated cardiomyopathy of unknown etiology, even if they have neither obvious skeletal muscle disorder nor joint involvement.", "The genetic aberrations that drive mixed phenotype acute leukemia (MPAL) remain largely unknown, with the exception of a small subset of MPALs harboring BCR -ABL1 and MLL translocations. We performed clinicopathologic and genetic evaluation of 52 presumptive MPAL cases at Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center. Only 29 out of 52 (56%) cases were confirmed to be bona fide MPAL according to the 2016 World Heath Organization classification. We identified PHF6 and DNMT3A mutations as the most common recurrent mutations in MPAL, each occurring in 6 out of 26 (23%) cases. These mutations are mutually exclusive of each other and BCR-ABL1/MLL translocations. PHF6- and DNMT3A-mutated MPAL showed marked predilection for T-lineage differentiation (5/6 PHF6 mutated, 6/6 DNMT3A mutated). PHF6-mutated MPAL occurred in a younger patient cohort compared with DNMT3A-mutated cases (median age, 27 years vs 61 years, P < .01). All 3 MPAL cases with both T- and B-lineage differentiation harbored PHF6 mutations. MPAL with T-lineage differentiation was associated with nodal or extramedullary involvement (9/15 [60%] vs 0, P = .001) and a higher relapse incidence (78% vs 22%, P = .017) compared with those without T-lineage differentiation. Sequencing studies on flow-cytometry-sorted populations demonstrated that PHF6 mutations are present in all blast compartments regardless of lineage differentiation with high variant allele frequency, implicating PHF6 as an early mutation in MPAL pathogenesis. In conclusion, PHF6 and DNMT3A mutations are the most common somatic alterations identified in MPAL and appear to define 2 distinct subgroups of MPAL with T-lineage differentiation with inferior outcomes." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is ttp in nlrp3
[ "The NLRP3 inflammasome is a central regulator of inflammation in many common diseases, including atherosclerosis and type 2 diabetes, driving the production of pro-inflammatory mediators such as IL-1 and IL-18. Due to its function as an inflammatory gatekeeper, expression and activation of NLRP3 need to be tightly regulated. In this study, we highlight novel post-transcriptional mechanisms that can modulate NLRP3 expression. We have identified the RNA-binding protein Tristetraprolin (TTP) as a negative regulator of NLRP3 in human macrophages. TTP targets AU-rich elements in the NLRP3 3'-untranslated region (UTR) and represses NLRP3 expression. Knocking down TTP in primary macrophages leads to an increased induction of NLRP3 by LPS, which is also accompanied by increased Caspase-1 and IL-1 cleavage upon NLRP3, but not AIM2 or NLRC4 inflammasome activation. Furthermore, we found that human NLRP3 can be alternatively polyadenylated, producing a short 3'-UTR isoform that excludes regulatory elements, including the TTP- and miRNA-223-binding sites. Because TTP also represses IL-1 expression, it is a dual inhibitor of the IL-1 system, regulating expression of the cytokine and the upstream controller NLRP3." ]
[ "Tristetraprolin (also known as TTP, TIS11, ZFP36, and Nup475) is a well-characterized tumor suppressor that is down-regulated in several tumor types. In the current study, we found that TTP expression was markedly reduced in pancreatic cancer samples as compared to matched normal tissues. Low TTP level was associated with age (P=0.037), tumor size (P=0.008), tumor differentiation (P=0.004), postoperative T stage (pT stage, P<0.001), postoperative N stage (pN stage, P=0.008) and TNM stage (P<0.001). Moreover, low TTP expression predicted reduced survival rates and poor patient outcome. We also found that TTP impairs pancreatic cancer cell proliferation both in vivo and in vitro. Fluorescence Activated Cell Sorting (FACS) assay showed that TTP over-expression both increases apoptosis and decreases proliferation in pancreatic cancer cells. RNA-sequencing analysis showed that TTP over-expression downregulates several tumor-related factors, including Pim-1 and IL-6. Our findings indicate that TTP could serve as a potential prognostic indicator in pancreatic cancer.", "Inter-individual heterogeneity in the response to human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1) infection has been partially attributed to host genetic background. The antiviral activity of the inflammasome cytoplasmic complex recognises viral molecular patterns and regulates immune responses via the activation of interleukin (IL)-1 family (IL-1, IL-18 and IL-33) members. The association between polymorphisms in the inflammasome receptors NLRP1 and NLRP3 and HTLV-1 infection was evaluated in a northeastern Brazilian population (84 HTLV-1 carriers and 155 healthy controls). NLRP3 rs10754558 G/G was associated with protection against HTLV-1 infection (p = 0.012; odds ratio = 0.37). rs10754558 affects NLRP3 mRNA stability; therefore, our results suggest that higher NLRP3 expression may augment first-line defences, leading to the effective protection against HTLV-1 infection." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what types of organisms have the highest productivity
[ "ocean's primary producers are tiny phytoplankton that grow and reproduce rapidly, so a small mass can have a fast rate of primary production. In contrast, terrestrial primary producers grow and reproduce slowly. There is an exception with cyanobacteria. Marine cyanobacteria are the smallest known photosynthetic organisms; the smallest of all, \"\"Prochlorococcus\"\", is just 0.5 to 0.8 micrometres across. Prochlorococcus is possibly the most plentiful species on Earth: a single millilitre of surface seawater may contain 100,000 cells or more. Worldwide, there are estimated to be several octillion (~10) individuals. \"\"Prochlorococcus\"\" is ubiquitous between 40°N and 40°S and dominates in the" ]
[ "have microscopic juvenile stages. Some microbiologists also classify viruses (and viroids) as microorganisms, but others consider these as nonliving. In July 2016, scientists reported identifying a set of 355 genes from the last universal common ancestor (LUCA) of all life, including microorganisms, living on Earth. Marine microorganisms constitute more than 90% of the biomass in the sea. They are crucial to nutrient recycling in ecosystems as they act as decomposers. A small proportion of microorganisms are pathogenic, causing disease and even death in plants and animals. As inhabitants of the largest environment on Earth, microbial marine systems drive changes in", "typical milliliter of seawater, there are approximately 10 to 10 fungal cells. This number is greater in coastal ecosystems and estuaries due to nutritional runoff from terrestrial communities. The greatest diversity and number of species of mycoplankton is found in surface waters (< 1000 m), and the vertical profile depends on the abundance of phytoplankton. Furthermore, this difference in distribution may vary between seasons due to nutrient availability. Marine fungi survive in a constant oxygen deficient environment, and therefore depend on oxygen diffusion by turbulence and oxygen generated by photosynthetic organisms. Marine fungi can be classified as: Most mycoplankton species" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
why is a tomato a berry
[ "Tomato fruit is classified as a berry. As a true fruit, it develops from the ovary of the plant after fertilization, its flesh comprising the pericarp walls. The fruit contains hollow spaces full of seeds and moisture, called locular cavities. These vary, among cultivated species, according to type." ]
[ "Why does a tomato taste like a vegetable if it is a fruit? Tomatoes, along with peppers, squash, eggplant and many other vegetables are fruits. the definition of a vegetable is: Any plant of which the flowers, roots, tubers, leaves … or stems are used as food.In common lexicon, tomatoes are considered vegetables, but botanically, fruits are a separate class.omatoes, along with peppers, squash, eggplant and many other vegetables are fruits. the definition of a vegetable is: Any plant of which the flowers, roots, tubers, leaves … or stems are used as food. In common lexicon, tomatoes are considered vegetables, but botanically, fruits are a separate class.", "Is a tomato a fruit or a vegetable? To really figure out if a tomato is a fruit or vegetable, you need to know what makes a fruit a fruit, and a vegetable a vegetable. The big question to ask is, DOES IT HAVE SEEDS? If the answer is yes, then technically, (botanically) you have a FRUIT. This, of course, makes your tomato a fruit." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
who wrote bang bang i shot you down
[ "Bang Bang (My Baby Shot Me Down) \"\"Bang Bang (My Baby Shot Me Down)\"\" is the second single by American singer-actress Cher from her second album, \"\"The Sonny Side of Chér\"\". Written by her then-husband Sonny Bono and released in 1966, the song reached No. 3 in the UK Singles Chart and No. 2 on the \"\"Billboard\"\" Hot 100 for a single week (behind \"\"(You're My) Soul and Inspiration\"\" by The Righteous Brothers), eventually becoming one of Cher's biggest-selling singles of the 1960s. The single proved successful, charting high in several countries worldwide. It became Cher's first million-selling single and" ]
[ "away on her horse. She comes across more enemy cowboys and tries to fight them, but she is captured by the Sheriff and thrown into jail. She sits in her jail cell for a while, feeling defeated, but eventually uses her pistol to break through the cell wall and escape. After escaping, the Sheriff and the cowgirl engage in a shootout, the girl winning the fight and fleeing the town on her horse. In the end, she and a mysterious cowboy in black clothing face off with each other, both drawing their guns at the same time, but the cowgirl", "Bang originates from a \"\"tentative lyric in one of [their] songs\"\" which lead singer Omar Ruiz suggested for the band’s name. In the band’s eyes, the name was fitting because they \"\"wanted something memorable that could describe [their] music at the same time\"\". Raul Rivero, bass guitarist, and Mauricio Rivero, drummer, are brothers. They attended J.E.B. Stuart High School in Falls Church, Virginia. Chaucer Hwang is originally from Florida. The lead singer, Omar Ruiz, attended McLean High School. Crash Boom Bang are friends with the popular band, Plain White T’s. Mauricio Rivero has known the lead singer, Tom Higgenson, since" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
are adult or paediatric airway epithelium similar
[ "The airway epithelium is a key protective barrier whose integrity is preserved by the self-renewal and differentiation of basal progenitor cells. Epithelial cells are central to the pathogenesis of multiple lung diseases. In chronic diseases, increasing age is a principle risk factor. In acute diseases, such as COVID-19, children suffer less severe symptoms than adults and have a lower rate of mortality. Few studies have explored differences between airway epithelial cells in children and adults to explain this age dependent variation in diseases. Here, we perform bulk RNA sequencing studies in laser-capture microdissected whole epithelium, FACS-sorted basal cells and cultured basal cells, as well as in vitro cell proliferation experiments, to address the intrinsic molecular differences between paediatric and adult airway basal cells. We find that, while the cellular composition of the paediatric and adult tracheobronchial epithelium is broadly similar, in cell culture, paediatric airway epithelial cells displayed higher colony forming ability, better in vitro growth and outcompeted adult cells in competitive proliferation assays. In RNA sequencing experiments, we observed potentially important differences in airway epithelial gene expression between samples from children and adults. However, genes known to be associated with SARS-CoV-2 infection were not differentially expressed between children and adults. Our results chart cell-intrinsic differences in transcriptional profile and regenerative capacity between proximal airway epithelial cells of children and adults." ]
[ "The lack of effective therapies for end-stage lung disease validates the need for stem cell-based therapeutic approaches as alternative treatment options. In contrast with exogenous stem cell sources, the use of resident progenitor cells is advantageous considering the fact that the lung milieu is an ideal and familiar environment, thereby promoting the engraftment and differentiation of transplanted cells. Recent studies have shown the presence of multipotent 'mesenchymal stem cells' in the adult lung. The majority of these reports are, however, limited to animal models, and to date, there has been no report of a similar cell population in adult human lung parenchyma. Here, we show the identification of a population of primary human lung parenchyma (pHLP) mesenchymal stromal cells (MSCs) derived from intraoperative normal lung parenchyma biopsies. Surface and intracellular immunophenotyping by flow cytometry revealed that cultures do not contain alveolar type I epithelial cells or Clara cells, and are devoid of the following hematopoietic markers: CD34, CD45 and CXCR4. Cells show an expression pattern of surface antigens characteristic of MSCs, including CD73, CD166, CD105, CD90 and STRO-1. As per bone marrow MSCs, our pHLP cells have the ability to differentiate along the adipogenic, osteogenic and chondrogenic mesodermal lineages when cultured in the appropriate conditions. In addition, when placed in small airway growth media, pHLP cell cultures depict the expression of aquaporin 5 and Clara cell secretory protein, which is identified with that of alveolar type I epithelial cells and Clara cells, respectively, thereby exhibiting the capacity to potentially differentiate into airway epithelial cells. Further investigation of these resident cells may elucidate a therapeutic cell population capable of lung repair and/or regeneration.", "Accumulating evidence demonstrates that adult tissues contain a population of stem cells that express early developmental markers such as stage-specific embryonic antigen and transcription factors Oct-4 and Nanog. These are the markers characteristic for embryonic stem cells, epiblast stem cells and primordial germ cells. The presence of these stem cells in adult tissues including bone marrow, epidermis, bronchial epithelium, myocardium, pancreas and testes supports the concept that adult tissues contain some population of pluripotent stem cells that is deposited in embryogenesis during early gastrulation. In this review we will discuss these data and present a hypothesis that these cells could be direct descendants of the germ lineage. The germ lineage in order to pass genes on to the next generations creates soma and thus becomes a 'mother lineage' for all somatic cell lineages present in the adult body." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
how does visibility influence interaction
[ "Strategies adopted by individuals in a social network significantly impact the network, and they strongly affect relationships between individuals in the network. Links between individuals also heavily influence their levels of cooperation. Taking into account the evolution of each individual's connection, we explore how sensitivity and visibility affect the prisoner's dilemma game. The so-called 'sensitivity' and 'visibility' respectively present one's self-protection consciousness and the ability of gaining information. We find that at moderate levels of player sensitivity cooperative behavior increases, but that at high levels it is inhibited. We also find that the heterogeneity of the weight of individuals at the end of the game is higher when sensitivity and visibility are increased, but that the successful-defection-payoff has less impact on the weight of individuals and on the relationship between the heterogeneity of the weight of individuals and the density of cooperators. This framework can be used to clarify the interaction mechanism between the micro-level of individual behavior and the macro-level of individual co-evolutionary processes." ]
[ "This study employed an eye-tracking technique to investigate the influence of social presence on eye movements in visual search tasks. A total of 20 male subjects performed visual search tasks in a 2 (target presence: present vs. absent)?2 (task complexity: complex vs. simple)?2 (social presence: alone vs. a human audience) within-subject experiment. Results indicated that the presence of an audience could evoke a social facilitation effect on response time in visual search tasks. Compared with working alone, the participants made fewer and shorter fixations, larger saccades and shorter scan path in simple search tasks and more and longer fixations, smaller saccades and longer scan path in complex search tasks when working with an audience. The saccade velocity and pupil diameter in the audience-present condition were larger than those in the working-alone condition. No significant change in target fixation number was observed between two social presence conditions. Practitioner Summary: This study employed an eye-tracking technique to examine the influence of social presence on eye movements in visual search tasks. Results clarified the variation mechanism and characteristics of oculomotor scanning induced by social presence in visual search.", "Interaction between two people may be construed as a continuous process of perception and action within the dyad. A theoretical framework is proposed in this article that explains the concepts and processes which comprise the interaction process. The article explores the transactional nature of interaction, through analysis of narrative data from two dyads, each comprising a person with severe or profound intellectual and multiple disability and a service worker. The novel application of grounded theory to analyse video data of non-verbal communication data in order to develop the theoretical framework is reviewed. Previously, attuning has been identified as the key process that drives interaction. This article explores the other concepts of the theory proposed, namely, setting, being, stimulus, action, attention and engagement. The article concludes by contrasting this theory of the interaction process with other related concepts and suggests how application of the proposed framework may enhance practice." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
communication impairments in cerebral palsy
[ "To explore factors associated with communication impairments in children with cerebral palsy. Data were obtained on children born between 1999 and 2008 from the Quebec Cerebral Palsy Registry (REPACQ). Out of 535 children with cerebral palsy, 297 were identified to have communication impairments (55.5%). Of these, 96 were unable to communicate verbally (32.3%), 195 had some verbal communication (65.7%), and 6 were unspecified (2.0%). These children were significantly more likely to have a more severe motor deficit (Gross Motor Function Classification System levels IV and V and Manual Ability Classification System levels IV and V), to have spastic quadriplegia or dyskinetic subtypes of cerebral palsy, and gray matter injury on neuroimaging. Communication impairment is a common comorbidity in cerebral palsy and is associated with a more severe motor deficit, spastic quadriplegic or dyskinetic subtype of cerebral palsy, and gray matter injury on neuroimaging. This information allows clinicians to better predict and manage communication impairment in children with cerebral palsy." ]
[ "BACKGROUND/AIMS: This study investigated the effects of familiarization on na?ve listeners' ability to perceive dysarthric speech produced by speakers with cerebral palsy and evaluated the degree of intelligibility improvement, both in the short and long term, as a function of (1) familiarization paradigms and (2) the number of familiarization phases.METHODS: A total of 120 listeners (30 listeners/speaker) were recruited to complete word transcription tasks over a 6-week period. The listeners were assigned to one of the following familiarization paradigms: passive familiarization with audio signal only, active familiarization with both audio and orthography, and no explicit familiarization. Intelligibility scores were measured as the percentage of words correctly transcribed.RESULTS: The active familiarization paradigm that provided listeners with both audio and orthography resulted in higher intelligibility scores compared to the passive familiarization and no explicit familiarization conditions. The degree of intelligibility improvement as a function of passive familiarization varied depending on the speaker. Last, the advantage of active familiarization was also found as a long-term effect.CONCLUSION: Our findings provide evidence for the benefits of familiarization in enhancing the intelligibility of dysarthric speech and support the efficacy of familiarization paradigms as an intervention technique in the management of dysarthria.", "BACKGROUND: Functional classification systems have generally been used by clinicians and recently by parents to classify various functions of children with cerebral palsy (CP).OBJECTIVE: This study evaluated the agreement between clinicians and parents when classifying the communication function of children with CP using the Communication Function Classification System (CFCS). In addition, the relationships between the Gross Motor Function Classification System - Expanded and Revised (GMFCS-E&R), the Manual Ability Classification System (MACS), and CFCS were investigated.METHODS: This study was a cross-sectional study and included 102 children aged 4-18 years with CP and their parents. The parents and clinician classified the communication of children by using the Turkish language version of CFCS. Furthermore GMFCS-E&R and MACS were used for classification only by the clinician.RESULTS: The weighted Kappa agreement between CFCS results of the parents and clinicians was 0.95 (95% CI 0.95-0.96, p<0.001). GMFCS-E&R levels were highly correlated with CFCS levels (r=0.78 (95%CI 0.68-0.84, p<0.001)). MACS and CFCS results were also highly correlated (r=0.73 (95%CI 0.63-0.81, p<0.001).CONCLUSION: The child's communication was classified as indicating higher functioning by the parents compared with the clinicians. The excellent agreement between parents and clinicians with the Turkish language version of CFCS for children with CP indicated that parents and clinicians could use the same language while classifying the communication function of children." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
is qnx unix
[ "QNX is not a Linux distribution, normal or otherwise. QNX is POSIX compliant. That means that much of the programming interface and many of the utilities are the same. The underlying OS is very different in structure. There is little compatibility for drivers. With Linux the operating system functions as a very large monolithic piece of code." ]
[ "Built on an open platform with service-oriented architecture, the QNXT application provides a rules-driven system that you can configure to meet the needs of your organization, and scales easily to serve organizations large and small.", "The DNX system contains a number of components: the DNX distribution, a NuGet package which implements the environment; DNVM, a tool for manging DNX distributions; DNU, a NuGet client for DNX; and dnx, a command line tool." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
The Commission also changed the effective date of the letter stamping requirement from the effective date of the Report and Order to April 1, 1997, to give importers and manufacturers time to make equipment changes.
[ "The Commission changed the date for when letter stamping would go into effect." ]
[ "The Commission would not change the date for when letter stamping would go into effect." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
when was michelangelo born
[ "Michelangelo Buonarroti was born on March 6, 1475, in Caprese, Italy, a village where his father, Lodovico Buonarroti, was briefly serving as a Florentine government agent. The family moved back to Florence before Michelangelo was one month old. Michelangelo's mother died when he was six." ]
[ "Self Portrait. Leonardo was born on April 15, 1452, at the third hour of the night in the Tuscan hill town of Vinci, in the lower valley of the Arno River in the territory of Florence.", "Michelangelo was a citizen of the city state of Firenze (Florence). The national state of Italy is very young, and in the time the statue was made (between 1501 and 1504), power resided with individual cities." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
impact of knowing the game duration on soccer players
[ "The aim of this study was to identify the influence of prior knowledge of exercise duration on players' pacing patterns during soccer small-sided games. Twenty semi-professional male soccer players participated in this study. In the first game scenario, players were not informed how long they would be required to play the small-sided game and the activity was terminated after 20min (Unknown Condition). In the second game scenario, players were told that they would play the small-sided game for 10min, but immediately after completing the 10-min game, they were asked to complete another 10min (Partially Condition). In the third game scenario, players were instructed that they would play the small-sided game for 20min and then they completed the 20-min game (Known Condition). The results presented a tendency of higher values in all performance variables in the [0'-10']min compared with the [10'-20']min. As the players' previous knowledge about the tasks duration increased, the performance between two moments tended to be similar. Considering the entire 20-min game duration, the Partially Condition of the exercise was the most demanding condition. In conclusion, the knowledge of shorter durations of the exercise seems to lead to an increase of exercise duration demand, and longer exercise durations possibly tend to decrease differences between full knowledge and not knowing the exercise duration." ]
[ "This study longitudinally examined age-related changes in the match-running performance of retained and released elite youth soccer players aged 8-18 years. The effect of playing position on age-related changes was also considered. Across three seasons, 263 elite youth soccer players were assessed in 1-29 competitive matches (988 player-matches). For each player-match, total distance and distances covered at age group-specific speed zones (low-speed, high-speed, sprinting) were calculated using 1 Hz or 5 Hz GPS. Mixed modeling predicted that match-running performance developed nonlinearly, with age-related changes best described with quadratic age terms. Modeling predicted that playing position significantly modified age-related changes (P < 0.05) and retained players covered significantly more low-speed distance compared with released players (P < 0.05), by 75  71 m/h (mean  95% CI; effect size  95% CI: 0.35  0.34). Model intercepts randomly varied, indicating differences between players in match-running performance unexplained by age, playing position or status. These findings may assist experts in developing training programs specific to the match play demands of players of different ages and playing positions. Although retained players covered more low-speed distance than released players, further study of the actions comprising low-speed distance during match play is warranted to better understand factors differentiating retained and released players.", "PURPOSE: To assess the effects of mental fatigue on physical and technical performance in small-sided soccer games.METHODS: Twenty soccer players (age 17.8 1.0 y, height 179 5 cm, body mass 72.4 6.8 kg, playing experience 8.3 1.4 y) from an Australian National Premier League soccer club volunteered to participate in this randomized crossover investigation. Participants played 15-min 5-vs-5 small-sided games (SSGs) without goalkeepers on 2 occasions separated by 1 wk. Before the SSG, 1 team watched a 30-min emotionally neutral documentary (control), while the other performed 30 min of a computer-based Stroop task (mental fatigue). Subjective ratings of mental and physical fatigue were recorded before and after treatment and after the SSG. Motivation was assessed before treatment and SSG; mental effort was assessed after treatment and SSG. Player activity profiles and heart rate (HR) were measured throughout the SSG, whereas ratings of perceived exertion (RPEs) were recorded before the SSG and immediately after each half. Video recordings of the SSG allowed for notational analysis of technical variables.RESULTS: Subjective ratings of mental fatigue and effort were higher after the Stroop task, whereas motivation for the upcoming SSG was similar between conditions. HR during the SSG was possibly higher in the control condition, whereas RPE was likely higher in the mental-fatigue condition. Mental fatigue had an unclear effect on most physical-performance variables but impaired most technical-performance variables.CONCLUSIONS: Mental fatigue impairs technical but not physical performance in small-sided soccer games." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how can carnosic acid activate apoptosis
[ "Carnosic acid is a phenolic diterpene from rosmarinus officinalis, and has multiple functions, such as anti-inflammatory, anti-viral, and anti-tumor activity. In this study, we examined whether carnosic acid could sensitize TRAIL-mediated apoptosis in human renal carcinoma Caki cells. We found that carnosic acid markedly induced TRAIL-mediated apoptosis in human renal carcinoma (Caki, ACHN, and A498), and human hepatocellular carcinoma (SK-HEP-1), and human breast carcinoma (MDA-MB-231) cells, but not normal cells (TMCK-1 and HSF). Carnosic acid induced down-regulation of c-FLIP and Bcl-2 expression at the post-translational levels, and the over-expression of c-FLIP and Bcl-2 markedly blocked carnosic acid-induced TRAIL sensitization. Furthermore, carnosic acid induced death receptor (DR)5, Bcl-2 interacting mediator of cell death (Bim), and p53 up-regulated modulator of apoptosis (PUMA) expression at the transcriptional levels via CCAAT/enhancer-binding protein-homologous protein (CHOP). Down-regulation of CHOP expression by siRNA inhibited DR5, Bim, and PUMA expression, and attenuated carnosic acid plus TRAIL-induced apoptosis. Taken together, our study demonstrates that carnosic acid enhances sensitization against TRAIL-mediated apoptosis through the down-regulation of c-FLIP and Bcl-2 expression, and up-regulation of ER stress-mediated DR5, Bim, and PUMA expression at the transcriptional levels." ]
[ "Carnosic acid (CA), a phenolic diterpene isolated from Rosmarinus officinalis, has been shown to activate nuclear transcription factor E2-related factor 2 (Nrf2), which plays a central role in cytoprotective responses to oxidative and electrophilic stress. Recently, the Nrf2-Kelch ECH associating protein 1 (Keap1) pathway has been associated with cancer drug resistance attributable to modulation of the expression and activation of antioxidant and detoxification enzymes. However, the exact mechanisms by which Nrf2 activation results in chemoresistance are insufficiently understood to date. This study investigated the mechanisms by which the cytotoxic effects of arsenic trioxide (ATO), an anticancer drug, were decreased in acute promyelocytic leukemia cells treated with CA, a typical activator of Nrf2 used to stimulate the Nrf2/Keap1 system. Our findings suggest that arsenic is non-enzymatically incorporated into NB4 cells and forms complexes that are dependent on intracellular glutathione (GSH) concentrations. In addition, the arsenic complexes are recognized as substrates by multidrug resistance proteins and subsequently excreted from the cells. Therefore, Nrf2-associated activation of the GSH biosynthetic pathway, followed by increased levels of intracellular GSH, are key mechanisms underlying accelerated arsenic efflux and attenuation of the cytotoxic effects of ATO.", "The possible anticancer effect of carnosine versus doxorubicin was investigated against hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) induced by trichloroacetic acid (TCA) (500mg/kg/day, p.o., for 5days) in rats. Following induction of HCC, rats treated with either carnosine (10mg/kg/day, i.p.), or doxorubicin (2.5mg/kg, i.p., once weekly), for 2 weeks. Carnosine significantly decreased serum alanine aminotransferase, and hepatic lipid peroxidation, nitric oxide, tumor necrosis factor-, and nuclear factor-B p65 unit, and significantly increased liver total antioxidant status in TCA-challenged rats. The effects of doxorubicin on oxidative, nitrative, and inflammatory biomarkers were less significant than carnosine. However, both carnosine and doxorubicin significantly induced liver tissue apoptotic biomarkers, Bax, cytosolic cytochrome C, and caspase-3, in a comparable manner. Additionally, carnosine and doxorubicin reduced the histopathological dysplastic changes, and alpha-fetoprotein expression in liver of rats with HCC. It was concluded that carnosine significantly protected against TCA-induced liver carcinogenesis in rats, through its antioxidant, antinitrative, and anti-inflammatory effects, and induction of apoptosis." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what airlines fly to grand turk
[ "Not only will you get to your destination safely, but your baggage will get there with you. Caicos Express Airways offers cheap flights between Providenciales and Grand Turk. For more information visit www.caicosexpressairways.com." ]
[ "Shore excursions on Grand Turk run the gamut from horseback riding to fly fishing -- and one of the biggest draws is diving, with the islands -- technically in the Atlantic, not the Caribbean -- lying along one of the largest barrier reefs in the world.", "Skyscanner allows you to find the cheapest flights to Istanbul (from hundreds of airlines including Turkish Airlines, Pegasus Airlines, Qatar Airways) without having to enter specific dates or even destinations, making it the best place to find cheap flights for your trip." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Employers of reddit: Why do you put "minimum work experience of X years required" into entry-level job postings?
[ " I once saw a job posted online as an \"entry-level\" position for which, between 10 different categories of experience required to apply, they expected applicants to have a total of 60 years' worth of experience. I may be wrong, but I think the reason why this is done is simply to cut down on the number of applicants. You have to imagine that, for every job posted with the entry-level designation and no particular required experience, the HR department would have thousands of applications to sift through." ]
[ " Used to work in recruitment. Now, what one needs to bear in mind is that recruiters will state what they *want*, but that's not necessarily what they'll *get*. Even they know this. But they pitch high, hoping that someone that fits that description applies for the job. They will get a bunch of people without experience applying too, and they may very well interview them and hire then. \n\nThis is often the case, but not always. A more cynical interpretation is that the company is looking for an experienced recruit but paying them on an entry-level salary, at least in their own scales. As far as that company is concerned, all entry-level positions require experience.", " The job is going to pay an entry level wage, but managers selfishly want someone who is way overqualified and will be able to overperform for that low wage. They think those overqualified people won't need as much supervision. \n\nI hate this practice, but I had a manager that purposely put a wishlist of requirements in job descriptions. She put \"Adobe Suite\" in every job listing, even when it had absolutely nothing to do with the position, because she just wanted someone in the department to have that skillset. When I was promoted, she posted my old job, and I called her thinking there had been a mistake. I told her I've had this job and I don't qualify to apply! She had years of budgetary experience, managerial experience, and Adobe Suite listed. None were needed for the position. \n\nI personally HATE this practice, because it completely distorts who you get applying. Perfectly qualified people don't apply, because they don't have those unrelated skills. No one that overqualified is going to be happy at that pay, at least not for long. And, in my experience, a lot of the people who apply when they don't have those bogus qualifications, also don't have some of the actually necessary ones - they have a bigger tendency to overestimate their qualifications in general." ]
Given a question, retrieve the highest voted answers on Reddit forum
eli5
Is feeling extraneous from one's own body a core vulnerability feature in eating disorders?
[ "To identify core vulnerability features capable of discriminating subjects who are more prone to develop eating disorders. A nonclinical group composed of 253 university students was studied by means of the Identity and Eating Disorders questionnaire (IDEA), exploring abnormal attitudes toward one's own body and difficulties in the definition of one's own identity, the Body Uneasiness Test (BUT) and different self-reported questionnaires evaluating the specific and general psychopathology of eating disorders. The results were compared with those of a clinical eating disorder group. In the student sample, a group composed of 35 subjects with abnormal eating patterns and a group (218 subjects) without such features were identified. The IDEA total and subscale scores were found to be significantly higher in subjects with abnormal eating patterns than in subjects without them (all p<0.001). Positive correlations between the IDEA total and subscale scores and the BUT global score were observed in both groups (all p<0.01). The comparison of the scores on the IDEA between the clinical group (patients with full-blown eating disorders) and the subjects with abnormal over-threshold eating patterns yields a significant difference in the 'feeling extraneous from one's own body' subscale of the IDEA" ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Patients with Binge Eating Disorder (BED) and obesity experience distressing relationships, which could trigger negative affect and over-eating. To date no studies compared the interpersonal profiles and prototypicality of both groups using the Interpersonal Circumplex.METHOD: A sample of 177 patients with BED (mean age: 41.0 ± 12.5 years; 11.3% males), 321 obese non-BED adults (mean age: 44.5 ± 13.4 years; 28% males), and 108 normal weight adults (mean age: 37.3 ± 9.6 years; 52.77% males) completed the Inventory of Interpersonal Problems (IIP-32), and scales of binge eating and psychological distress at one time-point.RESULTS: Compared to normal weight and obese participants, those with BED reported higher levels of interpersonal problems on all circumplex dimensions, except for Vindictive, with small to medium effects. All groups had highly prototypical profiles. Both obese and normal weight adults had very similar interpersonal profiles characterized by predominant friendly-dominant themes. On the contrary, those with BED had predominant friendly-submissive themes. Patients with BED reported significantly higher levels of psychological distress and binge eating severity, compared to the other two groups. Greater Domineering, Cold, Socially Inhibited and Non-Assertive scale scores, and lower Vindictive scale scores significantly predicted higher binge eating and psychological distress, regardless of group membership.DISCUSSION: Findings lend support to an interpersonal model of binge eating and to the presence of qualitative differences between patients with obesity and BED. Finally, results suggest some strategies for the clinical management of BED focused on non-assertion and problems with experiences and expression of anger.", "Emotional difficulties have been observed in individuals with eating disorders across awide range of studies, including poor interoceptive awareness, confusion of emotional states and difficulties with emotional language. Literature has linked these difficulties with emotional functioning as being an important factor related to the core aetiology ofeating disorders, however limited knowledge exists to how this impacts on professionalability to engage patients within treatment as a result of such dysfunction. Using aqualitative design this paper explores how facets of Emotional intelligence (EI) are related to the experience of an eating disorder. The study sampled a total of 32 participants with either a professional background working with eating disorders (n=27)or participants with personal lived experience (n=5), with a number of the participants (n=13) identified as having dual roles. The findings of the study show that aspects of EIsuch as emotional regulation and lack of an emotional language are considered to beat the core of the onset and maintenance of these disorders. Additional aspects of emotional awareness and expression were found to be related to treatment disengagement and difficulties. Building on previous literature, this paper found suchemotional deficits as a transdiagnostic issue rather than specifically anorexia nervosa. Furthermore, such dysfunction was seen by professionals to have a considerable impact on therapeutic relationships and successful treatment. These findings provide insight into the potential applications that EI may have in addressing aspects of theeating disorder to create better outcomes for treatment and intervention models." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
what is the normal level for your hemoglobin
[ "Normal hemoglobin levels are different in women and in men. In non-pregnant women, normal hemoglobin ranges from 120 g/L to 160 g/L. In men, normal hemoglobin levels range from 140 g/L to 180 g/L. Canadian Blood Services tests each donor’s hemoglobin at the clinic and requires a minimum of 125 g/L for donation.n men, normal hemoglobin levels range from 140 g/L to 180 g/L. Canadian Blood Services tests each donor’s hemoglobin at the clinic and requires a minimum of 125 g/L for donation." ]
[ "The normal level of hemoglobin in blood varies in male and female. In male it ranges from 13.8 to 17.2 gm/dL and in female it ranges from 12.1 to 15.1 gm/dL.Low level of Hemoglobin-There are many reasons for the reduction of hemoglobin blood.", "What Does High Hemoglobin Mean? High hemoglobin levels mean that measured hemoglobin levels are above the upper limits of normal for the age and sex of the person (see above normal values). For example, a 19 year old that has a detected hemoglobin level of above 17.7 g/dl would have a high hemoglobin level. Some causes for high hemoglobin levels are as follows:" ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is olfactory marker protein in dolphins
[ "Various toothed whales (Odontoceti) are unique among mammals in lacking olfactory bulbs as adults and are thought to be anosmic (lacking the olfactory sense). At the molecular level, toothed whales have high percentages of pseudogenic olfactory receptor genes, but species that have been investigated to date retain an intact copy of the olfactory marker protein gene (OMP), which is highly expressed in olfactory receptor neurons and may regulate the temporal resolution of olfactory responses. One hypothesis for the retention of intact OMP in diverse odontocete lineages is that this gene is pleiotropic with additional functions that are unrelated to olfaction. Recent expression studies provide some support for this hypothesis. Here, we report OMP sequences for representatives of all extant cetacean families and provide the first molecular evidence for inactivation of this gene in vertebrates. Specifically, OMP exhibits independent inactivating mutations in six different odontocete lineages: four river dolphin genera (Platanista, Lipotes, Pontoporia, Inia), sperm whale (Physeter), and harbor porpoise (Phocoena). These results suggest that the only essential role of OMP that is maintained by natural selection is in olfaction, although a non-olfactory role for OMP cannot be ruled out for lineages that retain an intact copy of this gene. Available genome sequences from cetaceans and close outgroups provide evidence of inactivating mutations in two additional genes (CNGA2, CNGA4), which imply further pseudogenization events in the olfactory cascade of odontocetes. Selection analyses demonstrate that evolutionary constraints on all three genes (OMP, CNGA2, CNGA4) have been greatly reduced in Odontoceti, but retain a signature of purifying selection on the stem Cetacea branch and in Mysticeti (baleen whales). This pattern is compatible with the 'echolocation-priority' hypothesis for the evolution of OMP, which posits that negative selection was maintained in the common ancestor of Cetacea and was not relaxed significantly until the evolution of echolocation in Odontoceti." ]
[ "The histological as well as ultramicroscopic structures of olfactory system of an amphihaline migratory fish hilsa Tenualosa ilisha, were studied. The sexually matured riverine fish were collected from a common breeding habitat-the Hooghly, a tributary of river Ganga, West Bengal, India. This study revealed that the riverine hilsa has larger olfactory bulb compared to marine hilsa with the olfactory lobes well exposed through nostrils. The olfactory lamellae (OL) are 40-45 in number and posses three distinct layers of sensory cells across each lamellae, namely, outer receptor cells (RC), middle sensory cells, and inner basal cells (BC). Besides the above arrangement, the sensory part of olfactory epithelium (OE) also bears rich microvillous cells exposed to the surface of the OE. The sensory and non-sensory surfaces on OL are distinguishable, with clear dendritic cells on sensory epithelium and solitary chemosensory cells on non sensory OE. Abundance of both types of cells in the OE is an indication of its chemoattraction ability towards molecules of amino acid origin. The feature of having abundant, dense, and large dendritic knobs on the surface of OE describes resemblance to the typical morphology of the chemosensory septal organs neuron. The expression of four G protein subunits, like Gs/olf, Gq, Go, and Gi-3 in OE indicate that its olfaction is a functional attributes of two olfactory systems, namely main olfactory system and Vomaronasal Olfactory System. Expression of ACIII and PLC2 in OE further confirms two signaling pathways involved in odorant reception in hilsa. RESEARCH HIGHLIGHTS: The olfactory bulb in the amphihaline migratory fish hilsa is big in size, with 40-45 lamellae. Its sensory areas showed multilayered cellular features with prominent sensory as well as microvillous cells, whereas non-sensory area possesses solitary chemosensory cells. The expression of four G protein subunits, Gs/olf, Gq, Go, and Gi-3 in olfactory epithelium indicates that its olfaction is a functional attributes of two olfactory systems, namely main olfactory system and vomaronasal olfactory system.", "Cluster of differentiation 36 (CD36) is a broadly expressed transmembrane protein that has multiple ligands, including oxidized low-density lipoproteins. We found recently that CD36 is expressed in olfactory sensory neurons and postulated that it plays a role in the detection of distinct odorants in the nasal cavity. To date, however, there have been few examples of attempts to identify CD36-recognizable odorants. In this study, by an in vitro assay using a peptide mimic of the receptor, we provided evidence that CD36 recognizes (Z,Z)-4,7-tridecadienal, an odor-active volatile compound that is known to occur in Katsuobushi (dried, fermented, and smoked skipjack tuna commonly used in Japanese cuisine as a seasoning) and in the preorbital secretion of male oribi. In addition, by comparing the data with those of its related compounds, we provided information on the structural requirements of (Z,Z)-4,7-tridecadienal for recognition by CD36. For instance, we showed that flexible rotation around the C2-C3 bond of the volatile may be of importance in gaining access to CD36. Identification of (Z,Z)-4,7-tridecadienal as the ligand prompts us to hypothesize that CD36 could participate in the control of distinct mammalian behaviors (e.g., food selection) through its ability to recognize specific odorants in the environment." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
A skateboarder flips his skateboard in midair while jumping from a ledge to the ground in front of a white structure.
[ "a skateboarder is doing tricks" ]
[ "the skateboarder forgot his board so walked to the park" ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
charlize theron how tall
[ "Mechanical Engineering student & Senior Supervisor on WikiAnswers. Charlize Theron is 5 foot 10 inches tall (1.778 m). Charlize Theron is 5 foot 10 inches tall (1.778 m)." ]
[ "Charlize Theron is an accomplished actress with one Oscar under her belt. The 40-year-old actress proved that she's just as focused when it comes to raising her children right as she treated daughter August to a play day at a children's gym in Beverly Hills, California on Tuesday.", "Make-up free Charlize Theron steps out in casual wear to visit a friend... without her recently adopted baby girl August. She must have lots of things on her mind - after the major changes in her life. Charlize Theron, 40, was make-up free and casually dressed as she stepped out on Thursday in Studio City, California. The Monster actress was spotted leaving a friend's house clutching some belongings, and without her newly adopted daughter." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
yak infection risk factors
[ "White yaks, a unique yak breed and the pearl of the plateau, only live in Tianzhu Tibetan Autonomous County (TTAC), Gansu Province, northwest China, contributing significantly to local economy. However, there was no information on the prevalence of Babesia bigemina in white yaks. In this study, a total of 974 serum samples collected from white yaks in TTAC were examined for specific antibodies against B. bigemina using a commercially available ELISA kit. The overall seroprevalence of B. bigemina in white yaks was 17.76% (173/974). A multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed to determine the risk factors associated with B. bigemina seroprevalence, and the results indicated that age, gender and the numbers of pregnancies of white yaks were not the significant risk factors. However, the white yaks in spring (OR=3.523, 95% CI=1.899-6.538, P<0.001) and summer (OR=3.439, 95% CI=1.909-6.193, P<0.001) encountered higher risk of being exposed to B. bigemina than that in winter. Thus, season was considered as a risk factor associated with B. bigemina infection. This is the first survey of B. bigemina seroprevalence in white yaks in China, which extends the host range for B. bigemina and provides useful information for controlling B. bigemina infection in white yaks." ]
[ "BACKGROUND: Cryptosporidium spp. and Giardia duodenalis are important causes of diarrheal diseases in humans and animals worldwide, and there is an increased interest in the role of animals in the mechanical transmission of these protozoa. To examine the role of yaks in this process, we examined the occurrence and genotypes of Cryptosporidium and G. duodenalis in yaks in western China.RESULTS: A total of 545 fecal specimens were collected from yaks from nine different counties in the central western region of China. The prevalence for Cryptosporidium spp. and G. duodenalis were 4.0 % (22/545) and 6.0 % (16/545), respectively. Mixed infections of Cryptosporidium and G. duodenalis were also detected in four specimens. The prevalence of both protozoa differed significantly between some age groups, with higher rates of infection in animals < 1 year old. Sequence analysis of the small subunit rRNA (SSU rRNA) gene of the Cryptosporidium isolates identified the species as C. parvum (n = 12), C. bovis (n = 6), C. ryanae (n = 3), and C. ubiquitum (n = 1). Genotyping based on 60-kDa glycoprotein (gp60) gene from five C. parvum isolates identified all as IId with three isolates identified as IIdA15G1, one as IIdA18G1, and one as IIdA19G1. One C. ubiquitum isolate was identified as subtype VIIa. Amongst the G. duodenalis isolates, 16 were identified as assemblage E at the SSU rRNA gene. Four novel glutamate dehydrogenase (gdh) subtypes and two triosephosphate isomerase (tpi) subtypes were found amongst the G. duodenalis assemblage E isolates.CONCLUSIONS: The presence of C. parvum subtype IIdA15G1, IIdA18G1, and IIdA19G1 isolates further confirms the dominance of the C. parvum IId subtypes in China. These findings also indicate that yaks may be a source of zoonotic Cryptosporidium infection, and this is the first report of G. duodenalis in yaks. The data presented here provides the basis for further genotyping or subtyping studies of G. duodenalis in yaks.", "This study aimed to describe the age-related morphological changes and the distribution of IgA and IgG antibody-secreting cells (ASCs) in yaks. The palatine tonsils of twenty clinically healthy yaks, viz. newborn juvenile, adult and aged, were studied using histology, immunohistochemistry, and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The results showed that the palatine tonsils found in two tonsillar sinus were elongated kidney-shaped structures. Some external crypts and internal crypts were present. The palatine tonsils were partially enclosed by a connective tissue capsule and had trabeculae extending into the organ. Within these encapsulated organs, mucous glands were seen very obviously. Each crypt was highly branched and lined with stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium. Several nonepithelial cells infiltrated between the epithelial cells, forming patches of reticular epithelium or lymphoepithelium. In newborn yaks, the lymphoid follicles were not observed. In other groups, the lymphoid follicles consisted of primary lymphoid follicles and secondary lymphoid follicles. Both IgA and IgG ASCs were distributed in the interfollicular areas, lymphoid follicles, the subepithelial areas of the non-reticular crypt epithelium, and the reticular crypt epithelium, with a few positive cells aggregated around the gland. The density of the two ASCs and the expression of the two proteins gradually increased from newborn to adult and reached a peak at adult age; they then decreased with age. However, the density of the IgG ASCs and the expression of IgG protein was significantly higher than that of IgA in all groups (P<0.01). The results indicated that the palatine tonsils were not only lymphoepithelial structures but also typical secondary lymphoid organs. IgG could be a significant component of mucosal immune responses in the palatine tonsils of yaks." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
yeah i would think i would think a cave would be could have problems like that too
[ "Yes, I think a cave could have the same type of problems." ]
[ "I don't think caves have those problems at all." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
A man and child in a pool.
[ "There are two people in a pool." ]
[ "A man and child are playing ball." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli
what is aap risk of t2dm
[ "PURPOSE: To estimate the risk of type II diabetes (T2DM) in children and adolescents initiating atypical antipsychotic (AAP) therapy.METHODS: We conducted a retrospective cohort study using a new user design approach. Medical and pharmacy claims data between 1 January 2007 and 31 December 2009 for dependents ages 4 to 18 from an employed, commercially insured population from across the USA were included. AAP exposure was defined in the presence of a pharmacy claim preceded by at least six months of AAP-free history. We used propensity score (PS) methodology to identify and match incident AAP users and non-users. New-onset T2DM, was defined based on medical and pharmacy claims. Follow-up was extended until the date of new-onset T2DM or the end of the study period. The risk of T2DM was evaluated in an intent to treat fashion using the Kaplan-Meier estimator and Cox proportional hazard regression that provided hazard ratio (HR) and associated 95% confidence interval (CI).RESULTS: Our study population included 6236 new AAP users and 22 080 non-users. In this PS-matched sample, the estimated risk of T2DM was twice as high in AAP users as non-users (HR 2.18, 95% CI 1.45-3.29). Noticeable risk differences between AAP-treated and control groups materialized within four months of AAP initiation and became constant after six months until the end of the follow-up.CONCLUSIONS: Children and adolescents who were prescribed an AAP medication had a two times higher risk of developing T2DM; our study raises questions about continued AAP use in children and adolescents." ]
[ "Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is associated with an increased risk of progression toward end-stage renal disease and cardiovascular (CV) risk mortality. To investigate this association, we studied 637 patients with T2DM in the Eastern area of Morocco. The mean follow-up period was 42 11 months. At the baseline visit, 22.8%, 59.1% and 18.1% of the patients had normo-albuminuria, micro-albuminuria and macro-albuminuria, respectively. Of all patients, 51.6% had a history of hypertension and 37.4% had hypertension on admission. At the end of follow-up, rapid progression (estimated glomerular filtration rate >5 mL/min/1.73 m /year) was observed in 24.1% of the cases and the frequency of occurrence of CV events was 5%, 18.5% and 32.5% in the normo-, micro- and macro-albuminuria groups, respectively (P <0.001). In multivariate analysis, arterial hypertension was identified as an independent risk factor related to diabetic kidney disease (DKD, P = 0.04) and occurrence of CV events (P = 0.02), while albuminuria was not identified as an independent risk factor, either for DKD or for the occurrence of CV events. Our study found that hypertension was an independent risk factor for the DKD and the occurrence of the CV events in T2DM patients.", "Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is a growing public health problem with significant lifetime health care costs. The majority of Americans do not achieve minimal targets for exercise, and individuals with T2DM typically engage in less exercise than the general adult population. However, those patients with T2DM who are sufficiently self-motivated to manage their condition have the potential to reverse diabetes and prevent its complications through behavioral and pharmacologic interventions. Marked improvements are possible through increased awareness and selection of healthy eating options, a willingness to incorporate vigorous exercise into their lifestyle, and the use of newer medications that essentially eliminate the risk of hypoglycemia while facilitating weight loss and the achievement of ideal glucose targets. For self-motivated patients, daily aerobic activity of 45 to 60 minutes per day may be a suitable target. For those who have cardiovascular clearance, high-intensity interval training accomplishes high levels of cardiometabolic fitness with shorter training periods by alternating moderate and intense exertion. Suitable medications that have a low risk of hypoglycemia during exercise include metformin, glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists, dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors, and sodium-glucose linked transporter-2 inhibitors. Specific daily caloric goals and incorporation of a mainly plant-based diet should be considered as a primary target for diabetes management. Self-management is important to achieving diabetes treatment goals, and mobile applications can be useful tools to support lifestyle changes in patients with T2DM." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Does abciximab improve 6-month clinical outcome after rescue coronary angioplasty?
[ "Few data are available concerning the effects on clinical outcome and left ventricular function of abciximab administration in patients undergoing rescue percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) after failed thrombolysis for acute myocardial infarction. The aim of the study was to investigate such effects. Eighty-nine consecutive patients referred to our laboratory from other hospitals for rescue PTCA within 24 hours from the onset of chest pain were prospectively randomized before the procedure to abciximab treatment (44 patients) or placebo (45 patients). No significant differences in baseline characteristics were observed between the 2 groups. Study end points were the occurrence of major adverse cardiac events (MACE) such as death, reinfarction, congestive heart failure, target lesion revascularization, or recurrent ischemia at 30-day and 6-month follow-up and the occurrence of periprocedural bleeding. Mean time from symptom onset to reperfusion was 8.5 +/-5.4 hours; rescue PTCA was successful in 96% of patients. The incidence of major, moderate, and minor bleeding was similar in the 2 groups. At 30-day follow-up, the echocardiographic left ventricular wall motion score index showed a significantly higher improvement in the abciximab group versus the placebo group (P <.001). At 6-month follow-up, the incidence of MACE was 11% in the abciximab group versus 38% in the placebo group (P =.004). Abciximab administration (P =.003) and cardiogenic shock (P =.005) were the only independent predictors of the occurrence of MACE at multivariable analysis" ]
[ "Objectives: Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the mainstay treatment for coronary artery disease but complications such as in-stent restenosis and thrombosis remain problematic. Radiofrequency balloon angioplasty (RBA) can improve lumen dimension, fusing intimal tears, and artery dissection but is associated with higher restenosis rate.Methods: After establishing an atherosclerosis model based on endothelial abrasion and high cholesterol diet, forty-five rabbits were randomly divided into three groups: RBA (n=20), percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) (n=20), and control groups (n=5). The RBA and PTA groups were subdivided according to harvested time posttreatment, respectively (1 hour, 7 days, 14 days, and 28 days). Aorta segments were then isolated for hematoxylin and eosin staining, Masson trichrome staining, immunohistochemistry, and Western blot for TLR-4, NF-êB, MCP-1, and VCAM-1expression.Results: At 28 days, intimal area was significantly lower in the RBA group compared to the PTA and control groups, whilst luminal and medial area were comparable in the RBA and PTA group but higher and lower than the control group, respectively. Expression of TLR-4, NF-êB, MCP-1, and VCAM-1 showed no significant difference between RBA and PTA groups.Conclusions: RBA can depress the intimal hyperplasia and promote dilatation of the artery to greater extents than PTA at 28 days. However, this did not involve TLR-4 signaling pathway, which likely plays a negligible role in mediating restenosis. Reduction of intimal hyperplasia may be due to injury of ablation to the tunica media and inhibition of VSMC proliferation and migration.", "BACKGROUND: Successful management of chronic total occlusion (CTO)by percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is known to be associated with better clinical outcomes than failed PCI. However, whether angiographic and clinical outcomes following PCI for long CTO lesions differ from those following PCI for short CTO lesions in the drug eluting stent (DES) era remains unknown. We therefore investigated whether CTO lesion length can significantly influence6-month angiographic and 2-year clinical outcomes following successful CTO PCI.METHODS AND RESULTS: A total of 235 consecutive patients who underwent successful CTO intervention were allocated into either the long or short CTO group according to CTO lesion length. Six-month angiographic and 2-year clinical outcomes were then compared between the 2groups. We found that baseline clinical characteristics were generally similar between the 2 groups. Exceptions were prior PCI, which was more frequent in the long CTO group, and bifurcation lesions, which were more frequent in the short CTO group. Apart from intimal dissection, which was more frequent in the long than short CTO group, in-hospital complications were also similarly frequent between the 2groups. Furthermore, both groups had similar angiographic outcomes at 6 months and clinical outcomes at 2 years. However, the incidence of repeat PCI(predominantly target vessel revascularization),was higher in the long than short CTO group, with our multivariate analysis identifying long CTO as an important predictor of repeat PCI (odds ratio, 4.26;95% confidence interval, 1.53-11.9; p = 0.006).CONCLUSION: The safety profile, 6-month angiographic, and 2-year clinical outcomes of CTO PCI were similar between patients with long and short CTO. However, there was a higher incidence of repeat PCI in long CTO patients despite successful PCI with DESs." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
is alkali therapy necessary in bladder cancer
[ "PURPOSE: To evaluate the necessity of chronic alkali therapy in non-complicated orthotopic ileal neobladders with normal renal function.MATERIALS AND METHODS: This is a prospective study that included 200 male patients who underwent radical cystectomy and ileal W neobladder for invasive bladder carcinoma between January 1993 and December 2013. The studied patients included 100 consecutive patients who were maintained on regular alkali therapy since surgery and 100 consecutive patients who stopped the use of alkali treatment after initial 3months postoperative with minimum postoperative observation time of 1year. All patients had satisfactory function of the reservoirs with normal upper tract. The patients were subjected to blood analysis for creatnine, electrolytes, pH and bicarbonate and urine chemical analysis. The study also included 40 healthy male age-matched volunteers who served as a control group.RESULTS: Both groups were comparable as regard age, BMI, follow-up period and surgical technique. There were no significant differences between both groups as regard serum creatnine, electrolytes blood pH and bicarbonate and the mean values were within normal range; however, the neobladder patients are still toward the acidotic side in comparison to healthy volunteers. Also there were no significant differences between both groups of patients as regard urine pH and excretion of electrolytes, calcium, phosphorus and creatnine.CONCLUSION: Patients with non-complicated ileal neobladders with normal upper tract who were not maintained on alkali prophylaxis for long period have a compensated acid base status. Therefore, the prolonged alkali prophylaxis is not mandatory." ]
[ "PURPOSE: A prospective phase II study carried out to evaluate hypofractionated radiotherapy with concurrent gemcitabine for bladder preservation in the elderly patient with bladder cancer.PATIENTS AND METHODS: Thirty-one patients were enrolled, age ?65years, diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder, after a maximum safe transurethral resection of a bladder tumour. They received 52.5Gy in 20 fractions using 3D conformal radiotherapy with concurrent 100mg/m2 gemcitabine weekly as a radiosensitizer.RESULTS: All patients completed their radiation therapy course, while seven patients received their chemotherapy irregularly due to grade 3 toxicities. Twenty-five patients (80.6%) achieved a complete response. At 2-years, overall survival was 94.4% and disease-free survival was 72.6%. T3 and residual after transurethral resection are factors that adversely affect disease-free survival.CONCLUSION: Hypofractionated radiotherapy and gemcitabine as a radiosensitizer in elderly as organ preservation for transitional cell carcinoma bladder cancer have acceptable toxicity profile with good response rate and disease-free survival, keeping salvage cystectomy for persistence or recurrence of invasive cancer.", "PURPOSE: Single immediate intravesical instillation of chemotherapy after transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT) has been the gold standard treatment for patients with low- and intermediate-risk non-muscle invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC). Herein, we conducted a multicenter prospective randomized controlled trial in Japan, comparing recurrence-free survival between single and two-time instillation of pirarubicin (THP) for solitary NMIBC.METHODS: Between 2005 and 2009, 257 patients with solitary NMIBC were enrolled and randomized to single instillation of THP (30mg/50mL) immediately after TURBT (Group A) or two-time instillation of THP immediately after and 1day after TURBT (Group B). The primary endpoint was recurrence-free survival. Secondary endpoints included rates of recurrence and adverse effects, including hematuria, micturition pain, difficult urination, pollakiuria, systemic symptoms, and other complications. This study was registered as UMIN C000000266.RESULTS: Of 257 patients, 99 in Group A and 102 in Group B could be evaluated for recurrence. Median follow-up was 71months. The overall recurrence rate was 39 and 31%, respectively (p=0.2704). Although the 5-year recurrence-free survival rates were 55.9% and 67.7% in groups A and B, respectively, the difference between groups was not significant (p=0.2031). No significant differences in adverse effects were observed between groups, except for pollakiuria (7 vs 22%, p=0.0031). Multivariate analyses did not show that the treatment group was a significant risk factor for bladder cancer recurrence.CONCLUSIONS: Postoperative two-time intravesical instillation of THP was not superior to single immediate instillation for preventing recurrence after complete resection of a solitary NMIBC." ]
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synthetic
dynamic change of disability in schizophrenia
[ "BACKGROUND: Disturbance of functionality is one of the core features of schizophrenia, and has deleterious effects on a patient's employment, increased healthcare costs, and a large societal burden. Thus, if a patient's disability status could be predicted, and interventions needed identified in advance, poor outcomes could be prevented. To achieve this aim, we developed a method by which to assess dynamic changes of dysfunction and estimate the lifetime duration of disability in patients with schizophrenia, as a proxy for assessing their specialized healthcare needs.METHODS: The proposed method was developed based on a nationwide database and a cross-sectional survey. The primary analysis investigated the dynamic change in the proportion of patients with manifested disability over time, while the secondary analysis estimated the lifetime duration of disability, obtained as the proportion of patients with manifested disability multiplied by the survival probability throughout the life of patients.RESULTS: The average lifetime duration of manifested disability of global functioning was estimated to be 20.9 years, which represents approximately 73% of the whole lifetime of patients. The duration of disability in socially-useful activities was estimated to be 15.6 years, while that in personal and social relationships was 17.5 years. The female patients had a longer duration of manifested disability (22.9 years) than the male patients (19.5 years).CONCLUSIONS: The developed method of analysis indicated that the longest lifetime durations of manifest disability were observed in the areas of socially-useful activities and personal and social relationships, and the proportions of patients with these disabilities rapidly increased at 200 months after diagnosis." ]
[ "OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the sensitivity of the balance sway index (SI) to drug-induced functional changes during acute relapse in patients with MS.METHODS: Dynamic posturography was used to derive the SI in 11healthy subjects and 13MS patients before and after intravenous high dose methylprednisolone (HDMP).RESULTS: In both groups, SI was lower in the least demanding task and increased with test complexity. Compared to the healthy group, patients were distinguished by a higher SI both prior to and following administration of HDMP (p<0.008). However, the effect of the drug on patients' SI was unremarkable. Total Expanded Disability Status Scale score was lower after treatment compared to pre-treatment values (p<0.001), with significantly lower mean score recorded in patients with pyramidal and cerebellar abnormalities (p=0.017 and p=0.011, respectively).DISCUSSION: The SI measure of dynamic posturography is not sensitive to short-term HDMP-induced functional changes during acute relapse in patients with MS. Further studies are needed to evaluate modified balance protocols and the possible long-term treatment effects of HDMP on SI.", "Patients with schizophrenia undergo changes in brain plasticity. In the present study, we characterized motor cortical-striatal plasticity in such patients. Compared with the potentiation following high-frequency repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation in the control group, the patients demonstrated impaired plasticity of corticostriatal motor-evoked potentials recorded from hand muscles. Notably, the loss of cortical plasticity was correlated with impaired motor learning in a rotary pursuit task. Moreover, the loss of plasticity was correlated with the symptoms of schizophrenia. The results suggest that the progression of schizophrenia is accompanied by altered cortical plasticity and functioning." ]
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synthetic
what does filtrate mean?
[ "Noun. 1. filtrate-the product of filtration; a gas or liquid that has been passed through a filter. fluid-a substance that is fluid at room temperature and pressure. product-a chemical substance formed as a result of a chemical reaction; a product of lime and nitric acid. percolate-the product of percolation." ]
[ "Filtration is a separation technique that is used to separate a solid that has not dissolved in a liquid (for example a precipitate). A filter paper is placed inside a glass funnel and a container put beneath. The mixture of the solid and liquid is placed into the filter paper.iltration is a separation technique that is used to separate a solid that has not dissolved in a liquid (for example a precipitate). A filter paper is placed inside a glass funnel and a container put beneath. The mixture of the solid and liquid is placed into the filter paper.", "The filtrate is composed of water, ions (sodium, potassium, chloride), glucose and small proteins (less than 30,000 daltons -- a dalton is a unit of molecular weight). The rate of filtration is approximately 125 ml/min or 45 gallons (180 liters) each day." ]
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msmarco
what is proptosis in the eye
[ "(May 2010). Exophthalmos (also called exophthalmus, exophthalmia, proptosis, or exorbitism) is a bulging of the eye anteriorly out of the orbit. Exophthalmos can be either bilateral (as is often seen in Graves' disease) or unilateral (as is often seen in an orbital tumor).n the case of Graves' disease, the displacement of the eye is due to abnormal connective tissue deposition in the orbit and extraocular muscles which can be visualized by CT or MRI. If left untreated, exophthalmos can cause the eyelids to fail to close during sleep leading to corneal dryness and damage." ]
[ "Graves' ophthalmopathy, also known as thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy (TAO), occurs in 2 to 7 % of patients with Graves' disease with the major manifestations being proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, optic neuropathy, and/or eyelid retraction. Thyroid-associated ophthalmopathy is the commonest cause of proptosis in adults.", "Blepharoptosis, also known as Ptosis is one of the most common eyelid disorders reported in ophthalmology. Blepheroptosis is the abnormal relaxation drooping of one or both upper eyelids with the eyes in primary gaze." ]
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msmarco
what are the effects of training load on muscle soreness
[ "BACKGROUND: In the elite rugby setting, it is critical to understand the effects of training load on the levels of fatigue, soreness and readiness of the athletes.METHODS: The training load, wellness, neuromuscular markers of fatigue and various perceptual measures of soreness of 16 elite rugby athletes were monitored during a training week. Training load was obtained for field training sessions, extra conditioning and gym-based sessions. Perceptual fatigue was obtained every morning from a 5-item wellness questionnaire and a questionnaire on the muscle soreness of 9 different muscle sites from each side of the body. Neuromuscular performance was obtained from a countermovement jump.RESULTS: Although the training performed on day 4 had a significantly (P<0.05) greater load in comparison to training days 1 and 2, muscle soreness and neuromuscular performance were more adversely effected after the cumulative workloads of days 1 and 2. Moreover, the effect of training load on muscle soreness was only evident in the lower body muscles. Data from the present study also suggest that two days off training are adequate for complete recovery from a high load training week in elite rugby athletes. There were no significant differences in soreness ratings between left and right sides for any of the 9 muscles sites.CONCLUSIONS: There was a clear effect of training load on soreness and neuromuscular fatigue, with greater fatigue following two training days in a row when compared to a single training day. Monitoring soreness from different lower body muscle sites may provide important information that relates to the fatigue levels of rugby athletes and therefore it is recommended to be included as part of the training load monitoring protocol." ]
[ "Bastos-Silva, VJ, Prestes, J, and Geraldes, AAR. Effect of carbohydrate mouth rinse on training load volume in resistance exercises. J Strength Cond Res 33(6): 1654-1658, 2019-The aim of this study was to investigate the effect of carbohydrate (CHO) mouth rinse on training load volume (TLV-number of repetitions ? load lifted [kg]) on 2 resistance exercises: leg press (LP) and bench press (BP). Twelve recreational resistance trained males were recruited. Subjects were assessed for 1 repetition maximum (1RM) and muscular endurance (ME) in LP and BP. Muscular endurance was determined by the maximum number of repetitions performed to volitional fatigue, with a load equal to 80% of 1RM. Exercises were performed on separate days (72 hours apart) under 3 experimental conditions: control (CONT), CHO (25 ml with 6.4% of maltodextrin), and placebo (juice without CHO [PLA]). Carbohydrate and PLA were used immediately before each exercise. There was no significant difference between conditions for the number of repetitions (CHO = 13.5 4.8; PLA = 11.5 4.4; CONT = 12.4 4.4, p = 0.68) nor TLV (CHO = 2006.7 825.2 kg; PLA = 1712.5 772.9 kg; CONT = 1817.1 672.6 kg, p = 0.99) in LP. However, CHO increased both repetitions (CHO = 8.2 1.6; PLA = 7.1 2.4; CONT = 6.8 1.8, p = 0.002) and TLV (CHO = 557.1 155.4 kg; PLA = 495.9 206.1 kg; CONT = 476.1 175.3 kg, p = 0.035) compared with CON in BP. Thus, a CHO mouth rinse increases BP performance in trained men, suggesting an interesting strategy to be used by experienced resistance training practitioners.", "Exercise-induced muscle damage (EIMD) is accompanied by inflammatory and immune responses. However, due to the repeated bout effect, there will probably be less EIMD. Hence, the purpose was to investigate inflammatory and immune responses over a three-day period of downhill running in active females. Eleven moderately trained healthy females performed three 60-minute bouts of downhill running in -13.5% grade, separated by 24 hours, at a speed eliciting 70-80% of their VO2peak on level grade. Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS), range of motion (ROM) and maximum knee isotonic strength (1RM) were measured pre- and two-hour post every bout. Blood variables, including CBC, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), creatine kinase (CK), myoglobin (Mb), IL-10, IL-6 and Monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1) were measured at 1 hour before the first bout and two hours after every bout. Data was analysed by repeated measure ANOVA (P<0.05). Although CK, LDH, Mb, IL-10, IL-6, MCP-1, total leukocyte count, monocytes and neutrophils increased significantly following the first bout, CK, LDH, Mb, IL-10, monocytes and neutrophils were only significantly higher following the third bout compared to the baseline (all P<0.05). Moreover, IL-10 and IL-6 decreased following the second and third bouts compared to the first bout (P<0.05). In comparison with the baseline, lymphocytes decreased after the second bout, DOMS increased following the second and third bouts, 1RM decreased following the first and second bouts (all P<0.05). ROM showed no significant difference. The three-day period of downhill running did not exacerbate EIMD and inflammatory response was partly attenuated." ]
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synthetic
where was selena quintanilla shot
[ "The Houston Chronicles Files. CORPUS CHRISTI -- Tejano music sensation Selena was shot to death Friday by a woman, identified as a former fan club president and ex-employee, who then threatened to kill herself and kept lawmen at bay for more than nine hours before surrendering." ]
[ "News of the death of Selena Quintanilla's killer went viral. Find out what really happened here! Reuters. News of the death of Yolanda Saldivar went viral today, but it turns out that it's just a hoax. As many know, Saldivar is spending time in jail after killing the beloved Selena Quintanilla.", "On January 8, 2011, U.S. Representative Gabrielle Giffords and eighteen others were shot during a constituent meeting held in a supermarket parking lot in Casas Adobes, Arizona, in the Tucson metropolitan area." ]
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msmarco
are there viruses in calf serum
[ "Using viral metagenomics we analyzed four bovine serum pools assembled from 715 calves in the United States. Two parvoviruses, bovine parvovirus 2 (BPV2) and a previously uncharacterized parvovirus designated as bosavirus (BosaV), were detected in 3 and 4 pools respectively and their complete coding sequences generated. Based on NS1 protein identity, bosavirus qualifies as a member of a new species in the copiparvovirus genus. Also detected were low number of reads matching ungulate tetraparvovirus 2, bovine hepacivirus, and several papillomaviruses. This study further characterizes the diversity of viruses in calf serum with the potential to infect fetuses and through fetal bovine serum contaminate cell cultures." ]
[ "Bovine pestiviruses, e.g., bovine viral diarrhea virus types 1 (BVDV-1 or Pestivirus A), BVDV-2 (Pestivirus B), and HoBi-like pestiviruses (HoBiPeV or Pestivirus H), have been shown to circulate in Brazilian cattle in varied proportions. In this study, we identified genetically pestiviruses circulating in beef cattle in Rio Grande do Sul, the southern most Brazilian state. Screening of serum of 15.584 beef calves destined to be export by an antigen capture ELISA and, subsequently, by reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), revealed 135 containing pestivirus RNA. Genetic typing of these viruses based on nucleotide sequencing and phylogenetic analysis of the 5' untranslated region (5' UTR) of the viral genome allowed for the identification of 90 different viruses, being 38 BVDV-1 (42.2%), 31 BVDV-2 (34.4%), and 21 HoBiPeV (23.4%). Among BVDV-1, only subtypes BVDV-1a (n = 28, 31.1%) and BVDV-1b (n = 10, 11.1%) were identified. All 31 BVDV-2 isolates belonged to BVDV-2b subtype and the 21 HoBiPeV viruses clustered to subgroup 3a. Thus, this study provides an approximate genetic profile of pestiviruses circulating in beef cattle in a traditional Brazilian beef cattle-raising state.", "OBJECTIVE: To investigate the presence of parapoxvirus (PPV) in cattle without clinical signs of infection and in farm environments of PPV-infected cattle.ANIMALS: 28 calves without clinical signs of PPV infection on 2 farms and 11 clinically affected calves on 6 farms.PROCEDURES: 164 oral swab samples were collected at regular intervals from 28 calves without clinical signs of PPV infection, and 11 swab samples were collected from 11 clinically affected calves. Viral DNA load was quantified by use of a PPV-specific quantitative real-time PCR (qRT-PCR) assay. RESULTS Of 28 calves without clinical signs of PPV infection, 12 had positive results for PPV DNA by use of the qRT-PCR assay. Viral DNA was detected continuously over a period of 2 to 5 months from 9 of these 12 calves, particularly from calves with dermatomycosis or respiratory tract disease. The PPV DNA loads in 32 oral swab samples from these 12 calves were significantly lower (median, 3.2 copies/mg) than those in samples collected from the 11 clinically affected calves (median, 3.2 ? 10(4) copies/mg). Moreover, PPV DNA was detected in the residual feed and drinking water on both farms that housed the calves without clinical signs of PPV infection.CONCLUSIONS AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: PPV in cattle without clinical signs of infection and in the environments of these cattle may represent sources of PPV transmission to susceptible cattle.IMPACT FOR HUMAN MEDICINE: Humans should wear gloves to prevent zoonotic disease transmission when handling cattle with or without clinical signs of PPV infection." ]
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bidirectional relationship between sleeping and mental health
[ "OBJECTIVE: The present study examined the daily, bidirectional relationships between sleep and mental health symptoms in youth presenting to mental health treatment.METHODS: Youth aged 6 to 11 (36% female, 44% European American) presenting to outpatient behavioral health treatment (N = 25) were recruited to participate in the study. Children and parents completed daily questionnaires regarding the child's sleep, mood, and behavior for a 14-day period, while youth wore an actigraph watch to objectively measure sleep.RESULTS: Examining between- and within-person variance using multilevel models, results indicate that youth had poor sleep duration and quality and that sleep and mental health symptoms were highly related at the daily level. Between-person effects were found to be most important and significant bidirectional relationships exist.CONCLUSIONS: Identifying and addressing sleep problems in the context of mental health treatment is important, as poor sleep is associated with increased symptomology and may contribute to worsened mental health." ]
[ "Importance: Depression is associated with poor sleep quality. Understanding the neural connectivity that underlies both conditions and mediates the association between them is likely to lead to better-directed treatments for depression and associated sleep problems.Objective: To identify the brain areas that mediate the association of depressive symptoms with poor sleep quality and advance understanding of the differences in brain connectivity in depression.Design, Setting, and Participants: This study collected data from participants in the Human Connectome Project using the Adult Self-report of Depressive Problems portion of the Achenbach Adult Self-Report for Ages 18-59, a survey of self-reported sleep quality, and resting-state functional magnetic resonance imaging. Cross-validation of the sleep findings was conducted in 8718 participants from the UK Biobank.Main Outcomes and Measures: Correlations between functional connectivity, scores on the Adult Self-Report of Depressive Problems, and sleep quality.Results: A total of 1017 participants from the Human Connectome Project (of whom 546 [53.7%] were female; age range, 22 to 35 years) drawn from a general population in the United States were included. The Depressive Problems score was positively correlated with poor sleep quality (r = 0.371; P < .001). A total of 162 functional connectivity links involving areas associated with sleep, such as the precuneus, anterior cingulate cortex, and the lateral orbitofrontal cortex, were identified. Of these links, 39 were also associated with the Depressive Problems scores. The brain areas with increased functional connectivity associated with both sleep and Depressive Problems scores included the lateral orbitofrontal cortex, dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, anterior and posterior cingulate cortices, insula, parahippocampal gyrus, hippocampus, amygdala, temporal cortex, and precuneus. A mediation analysis showed that these functional connectivities underlie the association of the Depressive Problems score with poor sleep quality ( = 0.0139; P < .001).Conclusions and Relevance: The implication of these findings is that the increased functional connectivity between these brain regions provides a neural basis for the association between depression and poor sleep quality. An important finding was that the Depressive Problems scores in this general population were correlated with functional connectivities between areas, including the lateral orbitofrontal cortex, cingulate cortex, precuneus, angular gyrus, and temporal cortex. The findings have implications for the treatment of depression and poor sleep quality.", "OBJECTIVES: To conduct a secondary analysis of a randomized controlled trial (RCT) that aims to understand the mediating effects embedded in a mind-body-spirit intervention for sleep and mood disturbances.METHODS: 126 adults with mild to moderate depression and subjective sleep disturbance, defined as Center for Epidemiologic Studies Depression Scale (CESD) scores from 10 to 34 and Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index (PSQI) score>5, participated in a waitlist-controlled RCT of an integrative mind-body-spirit intervention (I-BMS). Holistic well-being scale (HWS), a measure of the state of affliction and equanimity in mind, body and spirit, was included as a possible mediator. Data was collected at baseline and three-month follow-up. Mediation analyses were adopted to examine the pathways leading to sleep and mood improvements.RESULTS: After adjustments of baseline severities, changes in depressive symptoms partially mediated the effect of I-BMS on nighttime symptoms of insomnia (95% CI: 0.12-0.96), while exerting a full mediating effect on daytime symptoms of insomnia (95% CI: 0.14-0.64). The effect of I-BMS on mood was mediated by daytime symptoms of insomnia and spiritual orientation, but not by nighttime symptoms of insomnia (95% CI: 0.93-4.62).CONCLUSION: A bidirectional relationship was found between sleep disturbances and depressive symptoms following a mind-body-spirit intervention. The relationship between daytime symptoms and depressive symptoms was especially strong. Of the HWS variables, spiritual orientation was the only significant mediator of mood improvement following I-BMS. Our findings suggest that efforts to optimize the treatment of comorbid sleep disturbances and depression are needed, especially the treatment of daytime impairments along with sleep and mood disruptions." ]
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Does higher bypass temperature correlate with increased white cell activation in the cerebral microcirculation?
[ "Cardiopulmonary bypass induces a systemic inflammatory response, which in turn promotes a cascade of leukocyte and endothelial cell activity. We investigated whether differences in bypass temperature and flow rate affect endothelial cell and leukocyte adhesion in the cerebral microcirculation. Thirty-six piglets (13.0 +/- 1.1 kg) had a cranial window placed over the parietal cortex to evaluate the microcirculation by means of intravital microscopy. Animals were cooled to a temperature of 15 degrees C, 25 degrees C, or 34 degrees C on cardiopulmonary bypass with hematocrit levels of 20% or 30% by using pH-stat management, followed by 60 minutes of reduced flow (10, 25, or 50 mL.kg(-1).min(-1)). Rhodamine staining was used to observe adherent and rolling leukocytes in postcapillary venules. Higher bypass temperature correlated with significantly more adherent and rolling leukocytes during the full 60 minutes of low-flow bypass (P <.05). Poisson regression revealed more adherent leukocytes at 34 degrees C than at 15 degrees C and at a flow rate of 10 mL.kg(-1).min(-1) compared with a flow rate of 50 mL.kg(-1).min(-1). There was an inverse correlation between flow rate and the number of adherent and rolling leukocytes at 30, 45, and 60 minutes of low-flow bypass (P <.05). Temperature was a multivariable predictor of histologic score, with greater neurologic damage found after bypass at 34 degrees C (P <.01)" ]
[ "Cardiopulmonary bypass induces a systemic inflammatory and hemostatic activation, which may contribute to postoperative complications. Our aim was to compare the inflammatory response, coagulation, and fibrinolytic activation between two different perfusion systems: one theoretically more biocompatible with a closed-circuit, complete heparin coating, and a centrifugal pump, and one conventional system with uncoated circuit, roller pump, and a hard-shell venous reservoir. Forty-one elderly patients (mean age, 73 +/- 1 years, 66% men) undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting or aortic valve replacement were included in a prospective, randomized study. Plasma concentrations of complement factors (C3a, C4d, Bb, and sC5b-9), proinflammatory cytokines (tumor necrosis factor-alpha, interleukin-6, and interleukin-8), granulocyte degradation products (polymorphonuclear elastase), and markers of coagulation (thrombin-antithrombin) and fibrinolysis (D-dimer, tissue plasminogen activator antigen and tissue plasminogen activator-plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 complex) were measured preoperatively, at bypass during rewarming (35 degrees C), 60 minutes after bypass, and on day 1 after surgery. The mean concentrations of C3a (-39%; p = 0.008), Bb (-38%; p < 0.001), sC5b-9 (-70%; p < 0.001), interleukin-8 (-60%; p = 0.009), polymorphonuclear-elastase (-55%; p < 0.003), and tissue plasminogen activator antigen (-51%; p = 0.012) were all significantly lower in the biocompatible group during rewarming. Sixty minutes after bypass, the mean concentrations of sC5b-9 (-39%; p = 0.006) and polymorphonuclear-elastase (-55%; p < 0.001) were lower in the biocompatible group", "Hypothermic circulatory arrest (HCA) is used during surgical treatment of certain congenital heart defects. The possibility of ischemic neurologic injury associated with HCA has led some surgeons to use low-flow cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) during the hypothermic interval (hypothermic low flow [HLF]). This study investigates the inflammatory response to HCA and HLF, and reports the consequences of this response on pulmonary and right ventricular function. Piglets (3.1 to 6.6 kg) were cooled to 16 degrees to 18 degrees C using CPB, and randomized: HCA for 60 minutes (n = 7), or HLF (50 cc.kg(-1).min(-1)) for 60 minutes (n = 6). The piglets were rewarmed to 36 degrees C and weaned from CPB. Serum tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) concentration, percent lung water, and pulmonary and cardiac function were measured before and after CPB. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha was higher after HLF (2,990.5 +/- 884.5 pg/mL), compared with HCA (347.6 +/- 89.2 pg/mL; p = 0.03). The percent lung water was higher after HLF (84.8% +/- 0.3%) than HCA (82.0% +/- 0.4%; p < 0.001). The alveolar to arterial oxygen gradient was worse after HLF (457 +/- 42 mm Hg) than HCA (285.8 +/- 45 mm Hg; p = 0.02). Pulmonary vascular resistance was greater after HLF (36.08 +/- 8.28 mm Hg.mL(-1).m(-2).min(-1)) than HCA (14.55 +/- 3.46 mm Hg. mL(-1).m(-2).min(-1); p = 0.049). The right ventricular pressure waveform peak derivative, corrected for systolic pulmonary artery pressure, was lower after HLF (14.1 +/- 1.4 sec(-1)), than HCA (23.8 +/- 2.7 sec(-1); p = 0.01)" ]
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qa_pairs
Does deficiency of filamin A in endothelial cells impair left ventricular remodelling after myocardial infarction?
[ "Actin-binding protein filamin A (FLNA) regulates signal transduction important for cell locomotion, but the role of FLNA after myocardial infarction (MI) has not been explored. The main purpose of this study was to determine the impact of endothelial deletion of FLNA on post-MI remodelling of the left ventricle (LV). We found that FLNA is expressed in human and mouse endothelial cells (ECs) during MI. To determine the biological significance of endothelial expression of FLNA, we used mice that are deficient for endothelial FLNA by cross-breeding adult mice expressing floxed Flna (Flna(o/fl)) with mice expressing Cre under the vascular endothelial-specific cadherin promoter (VECadCre+). Male Flna(o/fl) and Flna(o/fl)/VECadCre+ mice were subjected to permanent coronary artery ligation to induce MI. Flna(o/fl)/VECadCre+ mice that were deficient for endothelial FLNA exhibited larger and thinner LV with impaired cardiac function as well as elevated plasma levels of NT-proBNP and decreased secretion of VEGF-A. The number of capillary structures within the infarcted areas was reduced in Flna(o/fl)/VECadCre+ hearts. ECs silenced for Flna mRNA expression exhibited impaired tubular formation and migration, secreted less VEGF-A, and produced lower levels of phosphorylated AKT and ERK1/2 as well as active RAC1" ]
[ "BACKGROUND:  Fibronectin splicing variant containing extra domain A (Fn-EDA), which is an endogenous ligand for Toll-like receptor 4 (TLR4), is present in negligible amounts in the plasma of healthy humans, but markedly elevated in patients with co-morbid conditions including diabetes and hyperlipidaemia, which are risk factors for myocardial infarction (MI). Very little is known about the role of Fn-EDA in the pathophysiology of acute MI under these co-morbid conditions.MATERIALS AND METHODS:  We determined the role of Fn-EDA in myocardial ischaemia/reperfusion (I/R) injury in the hyperlipidaemic apolipoprotein E-deficient (ApoE-/-) mice. Infarct size, plasma cardiac troponin I (cTnI) levels, intravascular thrombosis (CD41-positive), neutrophil infiltration (Ly6 B.2-positive), neutrophil extracellular traps (citrullinated H3-positive) and myocyte apoptosis (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase-mediated dUTP nick-end labelling-positive) were assessed in myocardial I/R injury model (1-hour ischaemia/23 hours of reperfusion).RESULTS:  Irrespective of gender, Fn-EDA-/-ApoE-/- mice exhibited smaller infarct size and decreased cTnI levels concomitant with reduced post-ischaemic intra-vascular thrombi, neutrophils influx, neutrophil extracellular traps and myocyte apoptosis (p < 0.05 vs. ApoE-/- mice). Genetic deletion of TLR4 attenuated myocardial I/R injury in ApoE-/- mice (p < 0.05 vs. ApoE-/- mice), but did not further reduce in Fn-EDA-/- ApoE-/- mice suggesting that Fn-EDA requires TLR4 to mediate myocardial I/R injury. Bone marrow transplantation experiments revealed that Fn-EDA exacerbates myocardial I/R injury through TLR4 expressed on the haematopoietic cells. Infusion of a specific inhibitor of Fn-EDA, 15 minutes post-reperfusion, into ApoE-/- mice attenuated myocardial I/R injury.CONCLUSION:  Fn-EDA exacerbates TLR4-dependent myocardial I/R injury by promoting post-ischaemic thrombo-inflammatory response. Targeting Fn-EDA may reduce cardiac damage following coronary artery re-canalization after acute MI.", "We examined whether mitral regurgitation (MR) augments post-myocardial infarction (MI) remodeling. MR doubles mortality after MI, but its additive contribution to left ventricular (LV) remodeling is debated and has not been addressed in a controlled fashion. Apical MIs were created in 12 sheep, and 6 had an LV-to-left atrial shunt implanted, consistently producing regurgitant fractions of approximately 30%. The groups were compared at baseline, 1, and 3 months. Left ventricular end-systolic volume progressively increased by 190% with MR versus 90% without MR (p < 0.02). Pre-load-recruitable stroke work declined by 82 +/- 13% versus 25 +/- 16% (p < 0.01) with MR, with decreased remote-zone sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+)-ATPase levels (0.56 +/- 0.03 vs. 0.76 +/- 0.02, p < 0.001), and decreased isolated myocyte contractility. In remote zones, pro-hypertrophic Akt and gp130 were upregulated in both groups at 1 month, but significantly lower and below baseline in the MR group at 3 months. Pro-apoptotic caspase 3 remained high in both groups. Matrix metalloproteinase (MMP)-13 and membrane-type MMP-1 were increased in remote zones of MR versus infarct-only animals at 1 month, then fell below baseline. The MMP tissue inhibitors rose from baseline to 3 months in all animals, rising higher in the MI + MR-group border zone" ]
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qa_pairs
what effect does tilt aftereffect have on neuron
[ "Neural responses to visual stimuli are modulated by spatial and temporal context. For example, in primary visual cortex (V1), responses to an oriented target stimulus will be suppressed when embedded within an oriented surround stimulus. This suppression is orientation-specific, with the largest suppression observed when stimuli in the neuron's classical receptive field and surround are of similar orientation. In human psychological experiments, the tilt illusion and tilt aftereffect demonstrate an effect of context on perceived orientation of a target stimulus. Similar to the neurophysiological data, the strength of these effects is modulated by the orientation difference between the target stimulus and context. It has been hypothesized that the neural mechanism underlying both the tilt illusion and tilt aftereffect involves orientation-tuned inhibition in V1. However, to date there is no direct evidence linking human perception of these illusions with measurements of inhibition from human visual cortex. Here, we measured context-induced suppression of neural responses in human visual cortex using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). In the same participants, we also measured magnitudes of their tilt illusion and tilt aftereffect. Our data revealed a significant relationship between the magnitude of neural suppression in V1 and size of the tilt illusion and tilt aftereffect. That is, participants who showed stronger blood oxygenation level dependent (BOLD) suppression in V1 also perceived stronger shifts in illusory tilt. This agreement between perception and neural responses in human V1 suggests a shared inhibitory mechanism that mediates both spatial and temporal effects of context in human perception." ]
[ "After adapting to a certain motion direction, our perception of a similar direction will be repelled away from the adapting direction, a phenomenon known as the direction aftereffect (DAE). As the motion system consists of local and global processing stages, it remains unclear how the adaptation of the two stages contributes in producing the DAE. The present study addresses this question by independently inducing adaptation at local and global motion-processing levels. Local adaptation was manipulated by presenting test stimuli at either adapted or nonadapted locations. Global adaptation was manipulated by embedding one or five global motion directions in the adapting motion. Repulsive DAE, when measured using a multiple-element test pattern, was stronger when it was produced by global adaptation than when produced by local adaptation. Specifically, the DAE resulting from local adaptation (a) decreased when test orientations differed from adapting orientation, (b) decreased when local directions were disambiguated using plaid stimuli, (c) remained the same even when attention was focused at specific test locations during adaptation, and (d) increased when tested with a single element. Overall, these findings suggest that the strength of repulsive DAE depends on both the motion-processing level at which adaptation occurs and the level at which the DAE was tested. Furthermore, the repulsive DAE arising from local adaptation alone can be explained by the propagation of local speed repulsion instead of local direction repulsion. Findings are discussed in the context of how motion aftereffects arise from the adaptation of a hierarchical motion system.", "Recent sensory experience can alter our perception and change the response characteristics of sensory neurons. These effects of sensory adaptation are a ubiquitous property of perceptual systems and are believed to be of fundamental importance to sensory coding. Yet we know little about how adaptation to stimulus ensembles affects our perception of the environment as most psychophysical experiments employ adaptation protocols that focus on prolonged exposure to a single visual attribute. Here, we investigate how concurrent adaptation to multiple directions of motion affects perception of subsequently presented motion using the direction aftereffect. In different conditions, observers adapted to a stimulus ensemble comprised of dot directions sampled from different distributions or to bidirectional motion. Increasing the variance of normally distributed directions reduced the magnitude of the peak direction aftereffect and broadened its tuning profile. Sampling of asymmetric Gaussian and uniform distributions resulted in shifts of direction aftereffect tuning profiles consistent with changes in the perceived global direction of the adapting stimulus. Adding dots in a direction opposite or orthogonal to a unidirectional adapting stimulus led to a pronounced reduction in the direction aftereffect. A simple population-coding model, in which adaptation selectively alters the responsivity of direction-selective neurons, can accommodate the effects of multidirectional adaptation on the perceived direction of motion." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
what building did the french revolution take place
[ "To understand the French Revolution from a cultural perspective, particularly the building of French nationalism, through the adoption of a national hymn (La Marseilles) and a national flag whose symbols were not solely that of the monarch.o understand the French Revolution from a cultural perspective, particularly the building of French nationalism, through the adoption of a national hymn (La Marseilles) and a national flag whose symbols were not solely that of the monarch." ]
[ "The profound changes set in motion by the French Revolution had an enormous impact in France as well as through the large scale European war it sparked from 1792 to 1815.", "This group was the first government crearedduring the French Revolution.6. This was the name of France™s possessionsin the New World before 1763.7. This royal palace was the site of the meetingof the Three Estates in May of 1789.9. These people made up France™s SecondEstate.10." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
wright state employee salaries
[ "184 Wright State University Employee Salaries. Browse Wright State University Salaries by Job Title →. Wright State University employees earn $30,000 annually on average, or $14 per hour, which is 68% lower than the national salary average of $61,000 per year." ]
[ "Wright State to eliminate 23 positions. Wright State to eliminate 23 positions. Wright State University is eliminating the positions of 23 employees, including six faculty members, as it continues to grapple with a budget crisis that has the board reviewing a number of options, including privatizing parking.", "WRIGHT STATE UNIVERSITY. COLONEL GLENN HWY. DAYTON OH 45435. General information:(937) 775-3333. Financial aid office:(937) 775-5721. Admissions office:(937) 775-5700University FAQ." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
how do you measure your ring finger at home?
[ " You can measure your ring size using either string or, perhaps a more common item in your home, floss. Take one of these measurement tools and wrap it around the base of your finger, marking where the string or floss first overlaps with a pen. Then, line that up with a ruler and take down its length in millimeters." ]
[ " ['Cut a thin strip of paper.', 'Wrap the paper around your finger. Make sure the paper is below the joint of your finger and close to your knuckle.', 'Mark the spot where the paper meets and measure the distance with your ruler.', 'Use the following chart to determine your ring size.']", " Cut a piece of string and wrap it around her finger (make sure it's not too tight). Then cut or mark the string at the exact measurement. Measure the string with a millimeter ruler. This measurement is the inside diameter of the ring." ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant passages that answer the question
gooaq
togo statistics and impact of mda
[ "BACKGROUND: Togo has conducted annual, integrated, community-based mass drug administration (MDA) for soil-transmitted helminths (STH) and schistosomiasis since 2010. Treatment frequency and target populations are determined by disease prevalence, as measured by baseline surveys in 2007 and 2009, and WHO guidelines. Reported programmatic treatment coverage has averaged over 94%. Togo conducted a cross-sectional survey in 2015 to assess the impact of four to five years of MDA on these diseases.METHODOLOGY/PRINCIPAL FINDINGS: In every sub-district in the country outside the capital, the same schools were visited as at baseline and a sample of fifteen children age 6 to 9 years old was drawn. Each child submitted urine and a stool sample. Urine samples were tested by dipstick for the presence of blood as a proxy measure of Schistosoma haematobium infection. Stool samples were analyzed by the Kato-Katz method for STH and Schistosoma mansoni. At baseline, 17,100 children were enrolled at 1,129 schools in 562 sub-districts; in 2015, 16,890 children were enrolled at the same schools. The overall prevalence of both STH and schistosomiasis declined significantly, from 31.5% to 11.6% for STH and from 23.5% to 5.0% for schistosomiasis (p<0.001 in both instances). Egg counts from both years were available only for hookworm and S. mansoni; intensity of infection decreased significantly for both infections from 2009 to 2015 (p<0.001 for both infections). In areas with high baseline prevalence, rebound of hookworm infection was noted in children who had not received albendazole in the past 6 months.CONCLUSIONS/SIGNIFICANCE: After four to five years of MDA in Togo, the prevalence and intensity of STH and schistosomiasis infection were significantly reduced compared to baseline. Data on STH indicate that stopping MDA in areas with high baseline prevalence may result in significant rebound of infection. Togo's findings may help refine treatment recommendations for these diseases." ]
[ "It is widely known that the recent Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) in West Africa caused a serious disruption to the national health system, with many of ongoing disease focused programmes, such as mass drug administration (MDA) for onchocerciasis (ONC), lymphatic filariasis (LF) and schistosomiasis (SCH), being suspended or scaled-down. As these MDA programmes attempt to restart post-EVD it is important to understand the challenges that may be encountered. This commentary addresses the opinions of the major health sectors involved, as well as those of community members, regarding logistic needs and challenges faced as these important public health programmes consider restarting. There appears to be a strong desire by the communities to resume NTD programme activities, although it is clear that some important challenges remain, the most prominent being those resulting from the severe loss of trained staff.", "OBJECTIVE: To assess the availability, utilization, and quality of emergency obstetric and neonatal care (EmONC) in Togo.METHODS: A cross-sectional study of EmONC services in all public and private health facilities in the territory of Togo conducted from July to December, 2012. The generic tools developed by the Averting Maternal Death and Disability program were used as the basic tools for this evaluation.RESULTS: The survey involved 1019 health facilities including 864 potential EmONC facilities that constituted the final sample. The results showed that there was low availability of functional EmONC health facilities (8 basic EmONC and 24 comprehensive EmONC) with a large urban/rural variation. Among the 24 current CEmONC, 22 were in urban areas and half were from the private sector. The national ratio of availability was 3 EmONC health facilities per 500 000 inhabitants. Nationally, the cesarean delivery rate was 3.5%. The lethality rate of direct obstetric causes was estimated at 1.3%.CONCLUSION: Needs assessment for EmONC showed low availability of EmONC services and underutilization of the available services." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
is there a dimensional relationship between anxiety and depression?
[ "OBJECTIVE To investigate the association between depression and anxiety symptoms and the metabolic syndrome (MetSyn), using a dimensional approach. The association between depression and anxiety, on the one hand, and the MetSyn as a cluster or its individual components, on the other hand, is equivocal. The categorical nature of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition might partly explain the inconsistent findings. METHODS In 2,433 Netherlands Study of Depression and Anxiety participants (mean age, 42.3 years; 33.1% male), three symptoms dimensions-lack of positive affect (PA, depression specific); negative affect (NA, aspecific); and somatic arousal (SA, anxiety specific)-were assessed by a shortened adaptation of the Mood and Anxiety Symptom Questionnaire. The association between symptom dimensions and MetSyn components (waist circumference, triglycerides, high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, glucose, and mean blood pressure) was analyzed, using linear regression analysis. RESULTS The occurrence rate of the MetSyn was 20.1% (n = 490). SA, but not PA and NA, was strongly associated with four out of five MetSyn components, especially waist circumference, triglycerides, and blood pressure (β = 0.046, p = .01; β = 0.077, p < .001; and β = 0.069, p < .001, respectively), and with the total number of MetSyn components (β = 0.098, p < .001). CONCLUSIONS Our results demonstrate a strong association of most of the MetSyn components with the SA dimension, but not with the NA and PA scales." ]
[ "BACKGROUND Dysmenorrhea is one of the most common menstrual disorders and is influenced by various factors. Psychological disorders including anxiety, depression, and stress have been suggested as influencing dysmenorrhea, but previous findings are inconsistent. This study will investigate the relationship between depression/anxiety/stress and dysmenorrhea using a systematic review and meta-analysis. METHODS Online databases including PsycINFO, Scopus, PubMed, Science Direct, ProQuest, ISI Web of Knowledge, and Embase will be searched. Appropriate keywords and MeSH terms will be used to retrieve the journal papers published from 1990 until the end of December 2019. To improve search coverage, the reference lists of all included studies will be reviewed to find eligible papers. Inclusion criteria include the following: descriptive, cohort, case-control, and cross-sectional studies; the relationship between depression/anxiety/stress and dysmenorrhea being an objective of the study; and published in peer-reviewed journals. The paper selection, data extraction, and quality assessment of selected studies will be performed independently by two researchers, and disagreements will be resolved through discussions. The Newcastle-Ottawa Quality Assessment Scale will be used to assess the quality of selected studies. A quantitative synthesis will be performed using the Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses (PRISMA) via the STATA software, if retrieving enough number of studies with no severe methodological heterogeneities. Otherwise, qualitative synthesis will be used to report the findings. DISCUSSION To the best of our knowledge, this will be the first systematic review on this topic. Performing an inclusive search in major databases over a wide timescale is one key strength of the proposed study and will maximize the coverage of the original research studies on this topic. Results of present study are expected to lead to deeper understanding the relationship between common mental health conditions and dysmenorrhea. SYSTEMATIC REVIEW REGISTRATION PROSPERO CRD42018102199.", "BACKGROUND: Due to the outbreak of COVID-19, the mental health of the people all around the world is severely disrupted. AIM: The purpose of this study is to identify whether ‘Fear of COVID-19’ impacted on future workforces’ career anxiety at the first place and whether depression from COVID-19 has any indirect effect on ‘Fear of COVID-19’ and future workforces’ career anxiety. METHOD: Based on three different scales related to ‘Fear of COVID-19’, depression and career anxiety, a structured questionnaire was developed and the survey data was collected for this study. RESULTS: The empirical result of the study reveals that, due to the outbreak of COVID-19 fear, the future workforce is getting anxious about their future career. Again, depression from COVID-19, caused by ‘Fear of COVID-19’, as a mediator, has a significant indirect impact on the relationship between ‘Fear of COVID-19’ and future career anxiety, resulting in a full mediation. This means, due to the outbreak of ‘Fear of COVID-19’ people are becoming depressed and anxious about their future career which is creating a long-term negative effect on human psychology. CONCLUSION: These research findings will be a major tool for the policymakers, as well as the human resource planning professionals, to sketch plans after COVID-19 pandemic. This study is a novel work combining the concepts of fear and depression with career anxiety in a pandemic situation like COVID-19, and also assists future researchers in many folds." ]
Given a query on COVID-19, retrieve documents that answer the query
synthetic
Is presence of intracranial artery calcification associated with mortality and vascular events in patients with ischemic stroke after hospital discharge : a cohort study?
[ "Although intracranial artery calcification (IAC) has been reported to be a risk factor for ischemic stroke, the prognostic implications of IAC in stroke outcome are unknown. The purpose of this study was to determine the association between IAC and risk of vascular events and death in patients with stroke after hospital discharge. All patients with ischemic stroke over a 1-year period were included (n=302). IAC, assessed by multidetector CT, was defined as hyperdense foci (peak density>130 Hounsfield units) and assessed in the 7 major cerebral arteries. The IAC scores ranged from 0 (no calcification) to 7. Follow-up information on major clinical events (including fatal or nonfatal ischemic stroke, cardiac and peripheral artery events, and all-cause death) was obtained by means of a structured phone interview. IAC was present in 260 patients (83%). With a mean follow-up of 773±223 days, 88 major clinical events occurred in 67 patients (22%): 45 new ischemic vascular events (ischemic stroke: n=22; cardiac event: n=15; peripheral artery event: n=8) and 43 deaths from any cause. Patients with the highest IAC scores had significantly higher rates of death and vascular events than those with the lowest IAC scores (log rank test, P=0.029). In the Cox proportional hazards regression model, the IAC score was significantly associated with major clinical events (hazard ratio, 1.34; 95% CI, 1.11-1.61; P=0.002)" ]
[ "Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) is a rare and devastating complication of carotid revascularization. We sought to determine the prevalence of, type of, and risk factors associated with ICH among recipients of carotid endarterectomy (CEA) and carotid angioplasty and stenting (CAS) within the National Inpatient Sample (NIS). Postoperative cases of ICH after CEA (International Classification of Disease 9th edition [ICD-9]: 38.12) or CAS (ICD-9: 00.63) were retrieved from the 2001 to 2008 NIS. Clinical presentation (asymptomatic versus symptomatic), discharge status, in-hospital mortality, demographics, and hospital characteristics were extracted from NIS data. Charlson indices of comorbidity were determined based on ICD-9 and clinical classification software codes. Multivariate regression was used to determine the impact of revascularization procedure type and symptom status on adverse outcomes, including ICH, in-hospital mortality, and unfavorable discharge status. Among 57,663,486 NIS hospital admissions, 215,012 CEA and 13,884 CAS procedures were performed. Symptomatic presentations represented the minority of CEA (N=10,049; 5%) and CAS cases (N=1251; 10%). ICH occurred significantly more frequently after CAS than CEA in both symptomatic (4.4% versus 0.8%; P<0.0001) and asymptomatic presentations (0.5% versus 0.06%; P<0.0001). Multivariate regression suggested that symptomatic presentations (versus asymptomatic) and CAS procedures (versus CEA) were both independently predictive of 6-fold to 7-fold increases in the frequency of postoperative ICH. ICH was independently predictive in a 30-fold increased risk of mortality before discharge", "Acute ischemic stroke attributable to extracranial internal carotid artery (ICA) occlusion is frequently associated with severe disability or death. In selected cases, revascularization with carotid artery stenting has been reported, but the safety, recanalization rate, and clinical outcomes in consecutive case series are not known. We retrospectively reviewed all of the cases of ICA occlusions that underwent cerebral angiography with the intent to revascularize over a 38-month period. Two groups were identified: (1) patients who presented with an acute clinical presentation within 6 hours of symptom onset (n=15); and (2) patients who presented subacutely with neurologic fluctuations because of the ICA occlusion (n=10). Twenty-five patients with a mean age of 62+/-11 years and median National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) of 14 were identified. Twenty-three of the 25 patients (92%) were successfully revascularized with carotid artery stenting. Patients in group 1 were younger and more likely to have a tandem occlusion and higher baseline NIHSS when compared with group 2. Patients in group 2 were more likely to show early clinical improvement defined as a reduction of their NIHSS by > or =4 points and a modified Rankin Score of < or =2 at 30-day follow-up. Two clinically insignificant adverse events were noted: 1 asymptomatic hemorrhage and 1 nonflow-limiting dissection" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
mercury concentration in cockles
[ "This study measured the levels of total mercury (tHg) in the whole tissues of cockles (Anadara granosa and A. antiquata) harvested from three estuaries of Western Lombok Island (WLI), Indonesia. This paper also evaluated the hazard level posed by the mercury in relation to the maximum residual limit for human consumption and to estimate the weekly intake and compare it with the provisional tolerable weekly intake (PTWI). The tHg concentrations in A. granosa ranged from 0.020 to 0.070 mg kg(-1), and those in A. antiquata were between 0.032 and 0.077 mg kg(-1) at all locations. All samples of cockles harvested from WLI contain tHg below the permissible limit for human consumption. The maximum weekly intakes for total mercury by coastal people range from 0.28 to 1.08 g kg(-1) b.w., and they are below the recommended values of PTWI (5.6 g kg(-1) b.w.). If it is assumed that 100% of the Hg in cockles is methyl mercury (MeHg), consumption of the indicated amounts at the measured values wouldn't exceed the MeHg PTWI (1.6 g kg(-1) b.w.)." ]
[ "This study is to determine total mercury in edible tissues of eight species of cephalopods and 12 species of crustaceans purchased from 11 identified major fish landing ports and wet markets throughout Peninsular Malaysia. The concentration of mercury was measured by cold vapor atomic absorption spectrometry (AAS) technique using the Perkin Elmer Flow Injection Mercury System (FIMS-400). In general, the mercury levels were low with concentrations in cephalopods ranging from 0.099 to 2.715mg/kg dry weight (or 0.0184-0.505mg/kg wet weight) and in crustaceans ranging from 0.057 to 1.359mg/kg dry weight (or 0.0111-0.265mg/kg wet weight). The mercury levels showed no significant differences (P > 0.05) between species for both cephalopods and crustaceans. There was no significant correlation between mercury concentrations and the body size of individual for both groups as well. Comparisons with mercury levels obtained found from other previous studies and/or species noted that they were of the same magnitude or relatively low compared to various locations reported worldwide.", "We determined mercury (Hg) concentrations in feathers of osprey (Pandion haliaetus), both nestlings (n=95) and adults (n=110), across peninsular Florida and the Florida Keys during February-August 2014. Feathers plucked from nestlings, aged 3-7weeks, contained Hg concentrations that ranged from 0.338 to 45.79mg/kg and averaged 6.927.58mg/kg (mean1SD). Feathers shed from adults contained significantly higher concentrations ranging from 0.375 to 93.65mg/kg, with an average of 17.816.1mg/kg. These levels were in the upper range of previously reported feather Hg concentrations of osprey and clearly show that Florida continues to have Hg hotspots that are elevated compared with many other regions. While these concentrations did not exceed levels previously reported in osprey from heavily Hg contaminated areas that showed no evidence of reproductive impairments, we cannot rule out potential individual-level effects to highly exposed nestlings after fledging. Mercury concentrations in nestlings were highest in coastal habitats of Collier and Monroe counties, where ongoing declines in osprey populations also have been documented." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
does matrine affect mouse sperm
[ "BACKGROUND: Matrine is a bioactive alkaloid that has a variety of pharmacological effects and is widely used in Chinese medicine. However, its effects on male reproduction are not well known. In this study, we aimed to investigate the in vitro toxicity of matrine on mature mouse sperm.METHODS: Mouse cauda epididymal sperm were exposed to matrine (10-200 M) in vitro. The viability, motility, capacitation, acrosome reaction and fertilization ability of the mouse sperm were examined. Furthermore, the intracellular calcium concentration ([Ca(2+)]i), calcium (Catsper) and potassium (Ksper) currents, and phosphorylation of extracellular signal regulated kinases 1/2 (p-ERK1/2) of the sperm were analyzed.RESULTS: After exposure to 100 M or more of matrine, mouse cauda epididymal sperm exhibited a significant reduction in total motility, progressive motility, linear velocity and acrosome reaction rate induced by Ca(2+) ionophore A23187. As a result, the fertilization ability of mouse sperm was remarkably decreased by matrine. Our data further demonstrated that matrine significantly reduced sperm [Ca(2+)]i and [Ca(2+)]i-related p-ERK1/2; however, both the CatSper and KSper currents, which are thought to interactively regulate Ca(2+) influx in sperm, were not affected by matrine.CONCLUSION: Our findings indicate that matrine inhibits mouse sperm function by reducing sperm [Ca(2+)]i and suppressing the phosphorylation of ERK1/2." ]
[ "??BACKGROUND: Rodent sperm cryopreservation is of critical importance for the maintenance of lines or strains of genetically engineered mice and rats. However, rodent sperm are extremely mechanically sensitive due to their unusual morphology, and are severely damaged using current methods of cryopreservation. Those methods result in poor post thaw motility (PTM) for mouse.OBJECTIVE: To investigate the mechanism of mechanical damage introduced to rodent sperm during freezing, a micro-mechanical model was established to analyze the sperm radial and axial thermal stresses generated by microscale extracellular ice formation.MATERIALS AND METHODS: PTM of mouse sperm cryopreserved in capillaries of different radii (100, 200, 344, 526, 775m) was measured using a standard computer-assisted sperm analysis system.RESULTS: The model predicts that when one of the inner dimensions of the containers (the inner diameter of plastic straws or straw capillaries) is on the same order of magnitude of sperm length, axial stress is significantly increased. The experimental results showed that the value of PTM was decreased from 38 8 % in the larger (775m) capillaries to 0 0 % in the smaller (100 m) ones.CONCLUSION: Theoretical analysis based on the established model were experimentally validated and can be used to guide the design of novel devices to improve the efficiency of rodent sperm cryopreservation.", "Matrine is an alkaloid extracted from a Chinese herb Sophora flavescens Ait, and has been used clinically for breast cancer with marked therapeutic efficacy in China. However, the mechanism has not been well known. Thus, the present study was to explore whether Matrine reverses multidrug resistance for breast cancer cells through the regulation of PI3K/AKT signaling pathway. Methyl thiazolyl tetrazolium (MTT) assay was used to detect the inhibitory action; Annexin V to detect apoptosis; fluorospectrophotometry to examine intracellular adriamycin (ADR) accumulation; and Western blot to label the proteins of P-glycoprotein (P-gp), MRP1, PTEN, p-AKT, Bcl-2, Bax, and Caspase-3. Matrine (0-2.5 mg/mL) inhibited MCF-7/ADR cell growth and induced apoptosis (P < 0.01). A total of 0.2 mg/mL Matrine could increase the intracellular concentration of ADR; the accumulation in MCF-7/ADR cells increased 3.56 times. Compared with control group, 0.6, 1.2 mg/mL Matrine reduced protein expressions of P-gp, MRP1, p-AKT, Bcl-2, but increased PTEN, Bax, and cleaved caspase-3 gradually, and unchanged caspase-3. Matrine was more likely to reduce the expression of P-gp, MRP1, and p-AKT at the same inhibition radio of Matrine, (0.6 mg/mL) and MK2206 (0.05 mol/L). Matrine inhibited MCF-7/ADR cell growth, induced apoptosis, and reversed multidrug resistance for breast cancer cells through the regulation of downstream apoptosis factors of PI3K/AKT signaling pathway by decreasing cell phosphorylation of AKT level." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
meaning of name keri
[ "Meaning of Keri. Irish name. In Irish, the name Keri means-dusky, dark.The name Keri originated as an Irish name. The name Keri is a unisex name and can be used for a boy or girl name (male or female).Irish Name Meaning-dusky, dark.eaning of Keri. Irish name. In Irish, the name Keri means-dusky, dark.The name Keri originated as an Irish name. The name Keri is a unisex name and can be used for a boy or girl name (male or female). Irish Name Meaning-dusky, dark. Origin-Ireland." ]
[ "Kerin [kerin] as a name for girls. The name Kerin means Ireland; dark. Kerin is a version of Erin (Irish, Gaelic): from irinn and ire. Kerin is also a variation of Kerrin (Irish, Gaelic). Associated with: ireland (gaelic), dark (black). Kerin has 2 variants: Kerryn and Keryn.", "Shiri /shi-ri/ [2 sylls.] as a girls' name is of Hebrew origin, and the meaning of Shiri is my song.hiri is an unusual surname too for both adults and children. (2000 U.S. Census). Shown below is the baby name popularity of Shiri for girls. Shiri has yet to be ranked in the list thus far." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
when did the first state legalize recreational weed
[ "Timeline of cannabis laws in the United States The legal history of cannabis in the United States began with state-level prohibition in the early 20th century, with the first major federal limitations occurring in 1937. Starting with Oregon in 1973, individual states began to liberalize cannabis laws through decriminalization. In 1996, California became the first state to legalize medical cannabis, sparking a trend that spread to a majority of states by 2016. In 2012, Colorado and Washington became the first states to legalize cannabis for recreational use. Prohibition begins - 1911 Decriminalization begins - 1973 Medical cannabis begins - 1996" ]
[ "Cannabis in Oregon Cannabis in Oregon relates to a number of legislative, legal, and cultural events surrounding use of cannabis (marijuana, hashish, THC, kief, etc.). Oregon was the first U.S. state to decriminalize the possession of small amounts of cannabis, and among the first to authorize its use for medical purposes. An attempt to recriminalize possession of small amounts of cannabis was turned down by Oregon voters in 1997. From 1999 through 2005, the ratio of Oregonians using cannabis outpaced the general United States population by 32–45%. In surveys conducted in 1974 and 1975—one and two years after decriminalization—it was", "of prohibition. Voters then rejected California Proposition 19 (1972), which sought to remove the criminalization of marijuana under California law. In 1976, Governor Jerry Brown signed the Moscone Act, which reduced the penalty for possession of marijuana from a felony to a misdemeanor. Voters passed California Proposition 215 (1996), making California the first state to legalize medical cannabis in the United States. In \"\"United States v. Oakland Cannabis Buyers' Cooperative\"\" (2001), the Supreme Court of the United States found that California's medical prescription providers were still subject to criminal prosecution. In \"\"Gonzales v. Raich\"\" (2005), the U.S. Supreme Court found" ]
Given a question, retrieve Wikipedia passages that answer the question
nq
how long do i fast before a blood glucose test
[ "Fasting blood glucose test. Do not eat or drink anything except water for 8 to 10 hours before a fasting blood glucose test. These are used to diagnose diabetes, a condition caused by too much glucose (sugar) in the blood.ron blood tests are usually taken in the morning before you eat anything. You should also avoid taking iron pills or tablets for 24 hours before your test. Your body absorbs iron very quickly from food or pills, so this can raise your iron levels and affect the test results." ]
[ "Anybody who tells you to fast before your 1 hour glucose test is giving you false information. Most lab techs will ask you if you ate anything and what you ate before administering the test. Doing the 1 hour test on an empty stomach will give a false result, and most likely make you sick! As far as what to eat, I always tell my patients to eat a high protein breakfast, such as eggs, bacon, sausage and milk.", "Yes | No Thank you! The one hour glucose test you really dont need to fast because it is not a fasting test. After you drink the glucola you should not have anything to eat or drink, no gum,candy or mints. you also should not go smoke. Cigerattes have glucose in them too." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
Does postoperative peak serum C-reactive protein predict outcome of hepatic resection for hepatocellular carcinoma?
[ "In spite of improvements in surgical techniques, instruments, and perioperative management, hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) recurs after hepatic resection in as many as 60-70% of patients. Therefore, it is important to predict tumor recurrence and prognosis in regard to decision making of additional adjuvant treatment after surgery. We investigated the relation between postoperative serum C-reactive protein (CRP) and tumor recurrence, as well as survival, in patients with HCC after elective hepatic resection. The subjects of this study were 77 patients who underwent elective hepatic resection for HCC between January 2001 and December 2008. We retrospectively examined the relation between postoperative serum CRP, clinical variables, and recurrence of HCC, as well as overall survival. For disease-free survival, preoperative ICGR15 (retention rate of indocyanine green at 15 min) of more than 15% (p=0.0039, p=0.0026), and advanced tumor stage (p=0.0380, p=0.0203) were significant and independent predictors of worse survival rate in univariate and multivariate analyses, respectively. For overall survival, female gender (p=0.0052, p=0.0021), preoperative ICGR15 of above 15% (p=0.0043, p=0.0153), advanced tumor stage (p=0.0063, p=0.0023), and postoperative peak serum CRP above 10 mg/dl (p=0.0309, p=0.0116) were significant and independent predictors of worse survival rate in univariate and multivariate analyses, respectively" ]
[ "Recurrence of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) after curative resection remains a major cause of treatment failure and tumor-related death. Patterns of HCC recurrence can be categorized into early recurrence and late recurrence which have different underlying mechanisms. In this study, we investigated if simple inflammation-based clinical markers can distinguish patterns of recurrence after curative resection of HCC. A retrospective analysis of 223 patients who underwent curative hepatectomy for HCC was performed. Preoperative inflammation-based factors including neutrophil/lymphocyte ratio (NLR), platelet/lymphocyte ratio, gamma-glutamyl transferase/alanine aminotransferase ratio, aspartate aminotransferase/platelet ratio index (APRI) and prognostic nutritional index together with other clinicopathologic parameters were evaluated by univariate analysis and multivariate analysis to identify independent prognostic factors. By combining risk factors, predictive models were established to distinguish populations at high risk of early or late recurrence. Age ≤50 years, resection margin ≤1 cm, TNM stage III-IV, NLR>2.75, APRI>0.23 and positive alpha-fetoprotein were independent adverse prognostic factors for early recurrence. Patients with three or more risk factors were at significant higher risk of early recurrence. APRI>0.23 and positive hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg) were independent risk factors of late recurrence, the coexistence of high APRI and positive HBeAg increased the risk of late recurrence", "Although extrahepatic metastasis occurs rarely after hepatic resection for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), the prognosis of these patients is extremely poor. Predictors of extrahepatic metastasis have not been fully investigated. To identify predictors of extrahepatic metastasis after resection, we retrospectively investigated 77 patients with HCC tumors > 50 mm in diameter who underwent hepatic resection. We investigated correlations between postoperative extrahepatic metastasis and clinicopathologic factors as well as extrahepatic metastasis-free survival rate by log rank test and predictors of extrahepatic metastasis by univariate and multivariate logistic regression models. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs-Ag) was found in 25 (32.5%) of 77 patients, and extrahepatic metastasis occurred in 26 (33.8%). Patients with extrahepatic metastasis showed better liver function and a high occurrence of HBs-Ag positivity than those without. The 5-year extrahepatic metastasis-free survival rate was worse in patients with HBs-Ag positivity, larger tumors (> or = 70 mm), higher alfa-fetoprotein level (> or = 300 ng/mL), and lower indocyanine green retention rate at 15 minutes (ICGR15) (< 15%) than in those without. By univariate logistic regression analysis, HBs-Ag positivity, larger HCC tumor (> or = 70 mm), lower ICGR15 (< 15%), and lower preoperative lymphocyte count (< 1000/mm3) were predictors of extrahepatic metastasis (P < .1). By multivariate analysis, HBs-Ag positivity was an independent predictor of postoperative extrahepatic metastasis (P = .04)" ]
Given a question, retrieve relevant Pubmed passages that answer the question
qa_pairs
can fluoroquinolones inhibit growth in wastewater
[ "As annual sales of antibiotics continue to rise, the mass of these specially-designed compounds entering municipal wastewater treatment systems has also increased. Of primary concern here is that antibiotics can inhibit growth of specific microorganisms in biological processes of wastewater treatment plants (WWTPs) or in downstream ecosystems. Growth inhibition studies with Escherichia coli demonstrated that solutions containing 1-10 g/L of fluoroquinolones can inhibit microbial growth. Wastewater samples were collected on a monthly basis from various treatment stages of a 30 million gallon per day WWTP in Maryland, USA. Samples were analyzed for the presence of 11 fluoroquinolone antibiotics. At least one fluoroquinolone was detected in every sample. Ofloxacin and ciprofloxacin exhibited detection frequencies of 100% and 98%, respectively, across all sampling sites. Concentrations of fluoroquinolones in raw wastewater were as high as 1900 ng/L for ciprofloxacin and 600 ng/L for ofloxacin. Difloxacin, enrofloxacin, fleroxacin, moxifloxacin, norfloxacin, and orbifloxacin were also detected at appreciable concentrations of 9-170 ng/L. The total mass concentration of fluoroquinolones in raw wastewater was in the range that inhibited E. coli growth, suggesting that concerns over antibiotic presence in wastewater and wastewater-impacted surface water are valid. The average removal efficiency of fluoroquinolones during wastewater treatment was approximately 65%; furthermore, the removal efficiency for fluoroquinolones was found to be negatively correlated to biochemical oxygen demand removal and positively correlated to phosphorus removal." ]
[ "Fluoroquinolones constitute a group of emerging pollutants and their occurrence in different environmental compartments is becoming object of increasing public concern due to their ecotoxicological effects and the potential to develop resistant bacteria. This study aimed to investigate the biodegradation of moxifloxacin (MOX), for which studies in the literature are very scarce. An activated sludge (AS) consortium and three bacterial strains able to degrade fluoroaromatic compounds - strains F11, FP1 and S2 - were tested. Biodegradation studies were conducted using acetate as a bulk carbon source. Strain F11 showed the highest biodegradation capacity, being able to completely consume and dehalogenate 7.5M of the target antibiotic when daily co-supplemented with acetate present as a readily degradable organic substrate in wastewaters. MOX could be used by strain F11 as a sole nitrogen source but the presence of an external nitrogen source in the culture medium was essential for complete biodegradation. Strain F11 was capable of completely consuming MOX in a range between 2 and 11M, although stoichiometric fluoride release was not obtained for the highest tested concentration. The antibacterial activity of residual MOX and of the metabolic products potentially resultant from the biodegradation process was investigated by agar diffusion tests, demonstrating that MOX biodegradation is associated with the elimination of the antibacterial properties of the target antibiotic and of the produced metabolites, which is an important result, as the activity of antibiotics and/or their metabolites in the environment, even at low levels, may lead to the development of resistant bacterial strains. Overall, the results obtained in this study suggest that strain F11 is a promising microorganism for the treatment of waters contaminated with MOX, where it could be used for bioaugmentation/bioremediation purposes. To the best of our knowledge, this is the first study reporting complete removal and dehalogenation of MOX by a single microorganism.", "Fluoroquinolone antibiotics (FQs) are ubiquitous and ionisable in surface waters. Here we investigate gatifloxacin (GAT) and balofloxacin (BAL), two widely used FQs, and determine the photochemical reactivity of their respective dissociation species that arise at different pH to understand the relevance and pathways of phototransformation reactions. Simulated-sunlight experiments and matrix calculations showed that neutral forms (HFQs0) of the two antibiotics had the highest apparent photolytic efficiency and hydroxyl-radical oxidation reactivity. Based on the pH-dependent photochemical reactivities, the solar apparent photodegradation half-lives (t1/2) in sunlit surface waters ranged from 14.5-169min and was 1-2 orders of magnitude faster than hydroxyl-radical induced oxidation (t1/2=20.9-29.8h). The corresponding pathways were proposed based on the identification of key intermediates using HPLC-ESI-MS/MS. The apparent photodegradation induced defluorination, decarboxylation, and piperazinyl oxidation and rearrangement, whereas hydroxyl-radical oxidation caused hydroxylated defluorination and piperazinyl hydroxylation. The photomodified toxicity of GAT and BAL was examined using an Escherichia coli activity assay. E. coli activity was not affected by BAL, but was significantly affected by the photo-modified solutions of GAT, indicating that primary photo-degradates have a comparable or higher antibacterial activity than the parent GAT. In fresh water and seawater this antibacterial activity remained high for up to 24h, even after GAT had undergone significant photodegradation (>1 half-life), indicating the potential impact of this chemical on microbial communities in aquatic systems." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
Hello, My sister in law back in Bangalore, INDIA is pregnant with her second baby and is 32-33 months pregnant. She started having itching in her palms and legs 2 weeks back and it didnt go away. She also gained weight of 6 Kg in a month. Doctors did some test and found elevated levels of SGOT (56) and SGPT (92) on 24-Jan-13 and prescribed her Udiliv 300 MG. However it didnt go away and Doctors repeated test and found very high levels of SGOT (194) , SGPT(289) on 3-Feb-13. The immediate diagnosis of fatty liver does not seem to hold true because her other levels are normal and there is no jaundice or vomiting etc. Viral Hepatitis Test is also negative. One of the options being discussed is to give steroid injections to fast develop baby lungs and get the baby prematurely out. What is best course of action for her and the baby including but not limited to medicines, natural foods , avoidance etc. Is it necessary to have the baby prematurely out with help of steroid injections ? Are there any side effects of steroid injections ? Can she take Liv 52 Syrup for liver health while taking Doctor prescribed medicines. Any pointers from you will be appreciated , please advise. -Sincerely
[ "The patients need to take liver protective agents like orbiting containing preparations along with sorbitol or trampoline citrate. Adílio will not help. Steroids will have deleterious effects on the Hi tract rather than the liver. A close watch needs to be kept on the liver function. Liv 52 is an ayurvedic liver tonic which may not be of significant help. I would advise you that she should be kept under close supervision of team of doctors comprising a gynecologist, pediatrician and a gastroenterologist. This will reduce the chances of missing out on any complication. I hope this answers your quarry" ]
[ "GOT is non-specific, and it increases in many conditionsIncreased SGPT may be due to hepatitis, altered lipid profile, autoimmune causes, medicines etc. You need clinical examination and few other investigations. You need few more investigations like random blood sugar(RBS), renal function test(RFT), Lipid profile, viral markers, complete liver function test, urine RE/ME. You should avoid red meat and high fat milk products. You should avoid fried and junk food and avoid alcohol completely if you take it. Medicines should be prescribed after complete investigations. I suggest my patients to take tablet ursodeoxycholic acid 300 mg twice daily after food for three months. This help in regeneration of liver cells. It may take 2-3 months for complete recovery. Get well soon.", "Increased SGPT may indicate liver injury. It may be due to many reasons like hepatitis, alcohol intake,autoimmune causes etc. It may be due to hepatitis in your case. You may need few more investigations like routine hologram, viral markers, ultrasound of abdomen. I suggest tablet ursodeoxycholic acid 300 mg twice daily for three months to my patients. It helps in regeneration of liver cells. I suggest follow-up test after one month. Avoid alcohol if you take it. Get well soon. Take Care" ]
Given a question with context from online medical forums, retrieve responses that best answer the question
dialogue
how long to cook corn in the husk in the microwave
[ "This article will help you make it in just over 5 minutes to cook corn, while it's still in the husk, and on the cob. Steps. Take the corn. Make sure it's still in the husk and all the kernels are still intact." ]
[ "Soak the corn husks in warm to hot water in a bowl for 30 minutes or until they become pliable. report this answer. Updated on Wednesday, February 01 2012 at 10:22PM EST. Source: www.cooking-mexican-recipes.com/...", "Soak the corn husks in warm to hot water in a bowl for 30 minutes or until they become pliable." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is snow bunny slang
[ "snow bunny ‎(plural snow bunnies) 1 A young attractive female skier. ( 2 African American Vernacular, slang, derogatory, ethnic slur) A white woman. 3 A woman who loves to play in the snow." ]
[ "For starters (scuse the pun) Bunny chow is a slang term for a South African fast food consisting of a hollowed out loaf of bread filled with beef, lamb, mutton, chicken, vegetable or bean curry.The origins are not clear and there are many variations on the history so I'll just share all of them with you.or starters (scuse the pun) Bunny chow is a slang term for a South African fast food consisting of a hollowed out loaf of bread filled with beef, lamb, mutton, chicken, vegetable or bean curry. The origins are not clear and there are many variations on the history so I'll just share all of them with you.", "Fluffy bunny (Wicca) From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia. The term Fluffy Bunny is used as a derogatory term within the contemporary Pagan religion of Wicca to refer to practitioners whose adherence to the faith is perceived as being superficial and dominated by consumerist values." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
where did the glassy winged sharpshooter come from
[ "and statewide control efforts to combat the glassy-winged sharpshooter and Pierce’s disease. The glassy-winged sharpshooter (GWSS) is an exotic insect to California whose presence was discovered in the 1990’s." ]
[ "Where did the name come from? The origin of the term “shot glass” is up for debate. The OED notes that the earliest literary use of the term came from the New York Times in the 1940s, but the term “shot” preceded that Times article by many years.", "It came from an English battle between the French over a Cliffside town. English and archers, the French saw the need to take out the archers middle finger so they could not train another generation of archers. The English subsequently won the war, and walked around the town with their middle finger still intact." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
residual lvh clinical relevance
[ "OBJECTIVES: Persistent left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy after surgery is frequent, but its clinical relevance is controversial. We evaluated if residual LV hypertrophy (LVH) is associated with clinical outcomes after aortic valve replacement (AVR) for severe aortic stenosis (AS).METHODS: We analysed clinical and echocardiographic parameters before and after AVR, in a prospective cohort of 132 patients with severe AS. The mean follow-up was 6.0 1.5 years. Clinical endpoints were all-cause death and combination of as in all-cause death and non-fatal cardiovascular hospitalization. At AVR, myocardial biopsies for collagen volume fraction (CVF) evaluation were done in 56 random patients.RESULTS: Residual LVH was present in 44% of patients after AVR. Patients with residual LVH were older, more frequently women and had hypertension (HT). Preoperatively, they had higher LV mass indices (LVMI), higher E/e' and left atrial volume indices, as well as lower peak systolic annular velocity. Female gender, HT, LVMI and E/e' were independent predictors of persistent LVH. CVF at the time of surgery was higher in those with residual LVH (20.0 14.6 vs 13.2 11.5%, P = 0.027). The risk of all-cause death and non-fatal cardiovascular hospitalization was higher in patients with residual LVH [OR 2.89 (95% CI 1.12-7.44); P = 0.035], but there were no differences in all-cause mortality. Residual LVH was associated with a worse outcome in women but not in men.CONCLUSIONS: Residual LVH after AVR is common and is associated with worse prognosis, particularly in women. In addition, HT, higher baseline LVM and worse diastolic dysfunction can help to identify patients at risk for incomplete normalization of LVM." ]
[ "OBJECTIVE: Residual lateral spread response (LSR) after seemingly adequate decompression for hemifacial spasms (HFSs) can provide prognostic information about the outcome of microvascular decompression (MVD). In the present study, the main objective was to evaluate the clinical and prognostic impact of residual LSR after adequate MVD for HFS.METHODS: An observational study was conducted in patients who underwent MVD for HFS at the University of Pittsburgh Medical Center between January 2000 and December 2007. Clinical and neurophysiological outcomes after pre- and post-MVD, including spasm relief, amplitude and latency of LSR, and postoperative complications were collected from groups with and without residual LSR after adequate decompression. Data analysis was performed to see the impact of residual LSR on HFS outcomes.RESULTS: There was no significant difference in preoperative clinical characteristics as well as postoperative complications between the two groups. The patient had significantly higher spasm relief in immediate postoperative period (p = 0.01) and at discharge (p = 0.002) when LSR disappeared during the procedure. There is no difference in spasm relief at follow-up period between the two groups (p = 0.69).CONCLUSION: Lateral spread is an invaluable tool in MVD for HFSs. Adequate decompression in patients with residual LSR improved long-term spasm relief. Constant communication between neurophysiologists and the surgeon might be vital to achieve adequate decompression. The amplitude of residual LSR after adequate decompression does not significantly affect the long-term spasm relief.", "AIM: To analyze whether PPM affects QOL and functional status in patients after isolated AVR for aortic stenosis (AS) with preserved left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF).METHODS: Consecutive patients who underwent AVR in University Hospital Center Zagreb for isolated severe symptomatic AS and preserved EF were enrolled. Echo data was obtained from complete transthoracic examinations prior and after surgery by offline analysis. Patients were divided into two groups according to the presence of PPM (effective orifice area (EOA)/body surface area (BSA)<0,85cm2/m2). QOL was assessed by telephone interview using Short Form 36-Item Health Survey (SF-36) along with functional NYHA status estimation.RESULTS: A total of 45 pts were included (23 female), and divided in PPM (n=26), and non-PPM group (n=19). Both groups were similar in pts age, LVEF, AVA/BSA prior surgery. After surgery, 57% of pts had PPM categorized as mild PPM. During follow-up of 2,5years, 3 pts had died and 10 were lost from following. There was no difference in NYHA status after surgery between groups (p=0,758). SF36 results showed no difference between groups. However, there was a significant improvement in Physical functioning (47,50% vs 75,47%,p=0,000) and Role limitation due to physical health (41,41% vs 81,25%, p=0,007) scores in the whole study population after AVR. Males had significantly better Energy/fatigue (p=0,034), Social functioning (p=0,004) and Pain (p=0,017) scores.CONCLUSIONS: Mild to moderate PPM showed no clinical relevance. All patients revealed improvement in QOL after AVR, while male sex was related to better functioning scores irrespectively of PPM." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
how are law of diminishing returns and diseconomies of scale different
[ "The key difference between the law of diminishing returns and decreasing returns to scale is that the. former is in the short run, where at least one factor of production is fixed, whilst the latter is in the long. run, where all factors of production/ inputs can be varied. As seen on the diagram below, long run." ]
[ "Confidence votes 5.9K. The law of diminishing returns, a widely accepted premise in economics, simply states that there is a point beyond which production is not increased proportionally to input, and eventually might even began to decrease.", "Dis-economies of scale represent the opposite situation: Constant return to scale are the intermediate situation in which the growth in production is exactly matched by the same percentage increase in total costs, i.e. elacticity of costs to production levels is 1: In this case, productivity is constant." ]
Given a web search query, retrieve relevant passages that answer the query
msmarco
what is the method of asymmetric hydrogenation of keto acids used for
[ "A new efficient and highly enantioselective direct asymmetric hydrogenation of -keto acids employing the Ir/SpiroPAP catalyst under mild reaction conditions has been developed. This method might be feasible for the preparation of a series of chiral -hydroxy acids on a large scale." ]
[ "Efficient asymmetric bio-epoxidation of electron-deficient ,-unsaturated ketones was realized via a tandem reduction-epoxidation-dehydrogenation cascade, which proceeds in a switchable manner to afford either chiral epoxy ketones or allylic epoxy alcohols with up to >99% yield and >99%ee.", "Removal of a side product to overcome unfavorable equilibrium is a prerequisite for the asymmetric amination of ketones using -transaminase (-TA). Alanine has been preferred as an amino donor because its deamination product (i.e. pyruvate) is easily removable by several enzymatic methods. Here, we demonstrated that the removal of pyruvate by an innate metabolic pathway could afford equilibrium shift of the -TA reactions." ]
Given a question, retrieve Pubmed passages that answer the question
synthetic
It's an island with a dual personality, each side trying to outsmile the other.
[ "The people on the island are all very happy." ]
[ "The different peoples on the island constantly bicker." ]
Given a premise, retrieve hypotheses that are entailed by the premise
nli